Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

Click the buttons corresponding to your desired answers and to have your paper graded press the 'Submit Paper' button which is found at the end of the examination page.
As in the real examination, do not forget to check your paper before you submit it for marking, there is no time limit within which the paper has to be completed, so do not feel compeled to rush through. Any illustrations required for a particular question will be shown below that question. If you have a text based browser, you should consult a copy of these illustrations, which are available from the ARRL.
 
Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
 (G0B05)
 
A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire.
B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground.
C. Over-voltage on the hot wire.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
 (G1A04)
 
A. 11 meters.
B. 12 meters.
C. 30 meters.
D. 60 meters.
 
 
Q 4:  What is the power limit for beacon stations?
 (G1B10)
 
A. 10 watts PEP output.
B. 20 watts PEP output.
C. 100 watts PEP output.
D. 200 watts PEP output.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter band?
 (G1C10)
 
A. 56 kilobaud.
B. 19.6 kilobaud.
C. 1200 baud.
D. 300 baud.
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
 (G1D04)
 
A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited .
D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present .
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
 (G1E08)
 
A. Information must be exchanged in English.
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement.
C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
 (G2A08)
 
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign.
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations.
C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response.
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station.
 
 
Q 9:  When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
 (G2B10)
 
A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency.
B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications.
C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting.
D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked.
 
 
Q 10:  What does the term 'zero beat' mean in CW operation?
 (G2C06)
 
A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station.
B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency.
C. Sending without error.
D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal..
 
 
Q 11:  What is QRP operation?
 (G2D10)
 
A. Remote piloted model control.
B. Low power transmit operation.
C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol.
D. Traffic relay procedure net operation.
 
 
Q 12:  What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions?
 (G2E08)
 
A. 3570 3600 kHz.
B. 3500 3525 kHz.
C. 3700 3750 kHz.
D. 3775 3825 kHz.
 
 
Q 13:  What does the K-index indicate?
 (G3A12)
 
A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun.
B. The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field.
C. The stability of the Sun's magnetic field.
D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado.
 
 
Q 14:  What does LUF stand for?
 (G3B07)
 
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points.
B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points.
C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period.
D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period.
 
 
Q 15:  Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?
 (G3C01)
 
A. The D layer.
B. The E layer.
C. The F1 layer.
D. The F2 layer.
 
 
Q 16:  What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
 (G4A10)
 
A. Automatic transmit/receive switching.
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation .
C. VOX operation.
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
 (G4B08)
 
A. A field-strength meter.
B. An antenna noise bridge.
C. A multimeter.
D. A Q meter.
 
 
Q 18:  What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
 (G4C06)
 
A. Overheating of ground straps.
B. Corrosion of the ground rod.
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment.
D. A ground loop.
 
 
Q 19:  How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
 (G4D07)
 
A. Approximately 1.5 times.
B. Approximately 2 times.
C. Approximately 4 times.
D. Approximately 8 times.
 
 
Q 20:  What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?
 (G4E01)
 
A. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna.
B. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna.
C. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna.
D. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna.
 
 
Q 21:  Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
 (G5A13)
 
A. A transformer.
B. A Pi-network.
C. A length of transmission line.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 22:  A two-times increase or decrease in power results in a change of how many dB?
 (G5B01)
 
A. Approximately 2 dB.
B. Approximately 3 dB.
C. Approximately 6 dB.
D. Approximately 12 dB.
 
 
Q 23:  If three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
 (G5C05)
 
A. 1500 ohms.
B. 90 ohms.
C. 150 ohms.
D. 175 ohms.
 
 
Q 24:  How should the winding axes of solenoid inductors be placed to minimize their mutual inductance?
 (G6A10)
 
A. In line.
B. Parallel to each other.
C. At right angles.
D. Interleaved.
 
 
Q 25:  Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
 (G6B11)
 
A. A bipolar transistor.
B. A Field Effect Transistor.
C. A tunnel diode.
D. A varistor.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
 (G6C13)
 
A. Octal.
B. RJ-11.
C. PL-259.
D. DB-25 .
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
 (G7A12)
 
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 7.
C. Symbol 6.
D. Symbol 1 .
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
 (G7B11)
 
A. SSB.
B. CW.
C. AM.
D. All of these choices are correct .
 
 
Q 29:  What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?
 (G7C08)
 
A. Product detector.
B. Phase inverter.
C. Mixer.
D. Discriminator.
 
 
Q 30:  What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced modulator?
 (G8A12)
 
A. Both upper and lower sidebands.
B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both.
C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier.
D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier.
 
 
Q 31:  Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
 (G8B09)
 
A. It is required by FCC rules.
B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver.
C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna.
D. It results in the best signal to noise ratio.
 
 
Q 32:  What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
 (G9A07)
 
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential.
B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long.
C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths long.
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line.
 
 
Q 33:  What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
 (G9B03)
 
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It stays the same.
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees.
 
 
Q 34:  What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?
 (G9C11)
 
A. To match the relatively low feed-point impedance to 50 ohms.
B. To match the relatively high feed-point impedance to 50 ohms.
C. To increase the front to back ratio.
D. To increase the main lobe gain.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
 (G9D06)
 
A. Wide bandwidth.
B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna.
C. Harmonic suppression.
D. Polarization diversity.
 
 

When you have completed your paper and checked your answers press the 'Submit Paper' button to have your paper graded.