Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
 (G0B05)
 
A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire.
B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground.
C. Over-voltage on the hot wire.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band?
 (G1A05)
 
A. 7.250 MHz.
B. 7.500 MHz.
C. 40.200 MHz.
D. 40.500 MHz.
 
 
Q 4:  What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?
 (G1B07)
 
A. Only "Q" codes are permitted.
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message.
C. They are not permitted.
D. Only "10 codes" are permitted.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20 meter band?
 (G1C07)
 
A. 56 kilobaud.
B. 19.6 kilobaud.
C. 1200 baud.
D. 300 baud.
 
 
Q 6:  How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
 (G1D09)
 
A. 30 days.
B. 180 days.
C. 365 days.
D. For as long as your current license is valid .
 
 
Q 7:  What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1E05)
 
A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid.
B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs.
C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief.
D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
 (G2A03)
 
A. Upper sideband.
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
 
 
Q 9:  When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
 (G2B10)
 
A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency.
B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications.
C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting.
D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked.
 
 
Q 10:  What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
 (G2C08)
 
A. SK .
B. BK .
C. AR.
D. KN.
 
 
Q 11:  When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
 (G2D05)
 
A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC.
B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications.
C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English.
D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union.
 
 
Q 12:  How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
 (G2E12)
 
A. Terminates the contact.
B. Requests the packet be retransmitted.
C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station.
D. Requests a change in transmitting protocol.
 
 
Q 13:  How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?
 (G3A14)
 
A. HF communications are improved.
B. HF communications are disturbed.
C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved.
D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed.
 
 
Q 14:  What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
 (G3B04)
 
A. Listen for signals from an international beacon.
B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal.
C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe.
D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band.
 
 
Q 15:  What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
 (G3C06)
 
A. They have high intelligibility.
B. They have a wavering sound.
C. They have very large swings in signal strength.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 16:  What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
 (G4A06)
 
A. Balanced modulator.
B. SWR Bridge.
C. Antenna coupler.
D. Q Multiplier.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
 (G4B03)
 
A. An oscilloscope.
B. A field-strength meter.
C. A sidetone monitor.
D. A wavemeter.
 
 
Q 18:  What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
 (G4C07)
 
A. Connect all equipment grounds together .
B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire.
C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity .
D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station.
 
 
Q 19:  What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
 (G4D01)
 
A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions .
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals.
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals.
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation.
 
 
Q 20:  What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
 (G4E06)
 
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals.
B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals.
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited.
D. Harmonic radiation may increase.
 
 
Q 21:  Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
 (G5A04)
 
A. Conductance.
B. Reluctance.
C. Reactance.
D. Admittance.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
 (G5B08)
 
A. 84.8 volts .
B. 169.7 volts .
C. 240.0 volts.
D. 339.4 volts .
 
 
Q 23:  What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
 (G5C09)
 
A. .30 microfarads.
B. .33 microfarads.
C. 33.3 microfarads.
D. 300 microfarads.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
 (G6A03)
 
A. Tight tolerance.
B. High stability.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Comparatively low cost.
 
 
Q 25:  What are two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon diode rectifiers?
 (G6B02)
 
A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current.
B. Average power; average voltage.
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage.
D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage.
 
 
Q 26:  What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
 (G6C15)
 
A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons.
B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating.
C. Higher current carrying capacity.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 27:  Which of the following components are used in a power-supply filter network?
 (G7A02)
 
A. Diodes.
B. Transformers and transducers.
C. Quartz crystals.
D. Capacitors and inductors.
 
 
Q 28:  For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
 (G7B11)
 
A. SSB.
B. CW.
C. AM.
D. All of these choices are correct .
 
 
Q 29:  Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?
 (G7C09)
 
A. An analog to digital converter.
B. A digital to analog converter.
C. A digital processor chip.
D. All of the these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 30:  What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
 (G8A09)
 
A. The RF clipping level.
B. Transmit audio or microphone gain.
C. Antenna inductance or capacitance.
D. Attenuator level.
 
 
Q 31:  What does the number 31 represent in PSK31?
 (G8B10)
 
A. The approximate transmitted symbol rate.
B. The version of the PSK protocol.
C. The year in which PSK31 was invented.
D. The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31.
 
 
Q 32:  What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
 (G9A12)
 
A. 2:1.
B. 2.5:1.
C. 1.25:1.
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values.
 
 
Q 33:  What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
 (G9B03)
 
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It stays the same.
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees.
 
 
Q 34:  How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?
 (G9C05)
 
A. Gain increases.
B. Beamwidth increases.
C. Weight decreases.
D. Wind load decreases.
 
 
Q 35:  What is the advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
 (G9D05)
 
A. Allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization.
B. Allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization.
C. Narrows the main lobe in azimuth.
D. Narrows the main lobe in elevation.
 
 

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