Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels.
B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels.
C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements.
D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements .
Q 2:  Which wire or wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase source?
A. Only the hot wires .
B. Only the neutral wire.
C. Only the ground wire.
D. All wires.
Q 3:  Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
A. 11 meters.
B. 12 meters.
C. 30 meters.
D. 60 meters.
Q 4:  When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis.
B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available.
C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis.
D. Never.
Q 5:  What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output.
B. 1000 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. 2000 watts PEP output.
Q 6:  What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
A. 12 years.
B. 18 years.
C. 21 years .
D. There is no age limit.
Q 7:  With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
A. Countries in ITU Region 2.
B. Countries in ITU Region 1.
C. Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country.
D. Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU).
Q 8:  Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband .
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
Q 9:  What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?
A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign.
B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ .
C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response.
D. Send 'QSY' on CW or if using phone, announce 'the frequency is in use', then send your call and listen for a response.
Q 10:  What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
A. Keep frequency clear .
B. Operating full break-in.
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations.
D. Closing station.
Q 11:  What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
A. Date and time of contact.
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact .
C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given .
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 12:  In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted.
B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error.
C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet.
D. The entire file has been received correctly.
Q 13:  What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
A. Aurora that can reflect VHF signals.
B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions.
C. Improved HF long path propagation.
D. Reduced long delayed echoes .
Q 14:  What factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A. Path distance and location.
B. Time of day and season.
C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 15:  What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable.
B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal.
C. The E-region is not present.
D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths.
Q 16:  What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier?
A. Exceeding the Maximum Usable Frequency.
B. Low input SWR.
C. Shorting the input signal to ground.
D. Excessive drive power.
Q 17:  Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
A. An oscilloscope uses less power.
B. Complex impedances can be easily measured.
C. Input impedance is much lower.
D. Complex waveforms can be measured.
Q 18:  Which of the following is one use for a Digital Signal Processor in an amateur station?
A. To provide adequate grounding.
B. To remove noise from received signals.
C. To increase antenna gain.
D. To increase antenna bandwidth.
Q 19:  What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz.
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz.
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz.
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz.
Q 20:  What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?
A. Photovoltaic conversion.
B. Photon emission.
C. Photosynthesis.
D. Photon decomposition.
Q 21:  Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits.
B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit.
C. Increase the power output of the first circuit.
D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits.
Q 22:  What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
A. 10.9%.
B. 12.2%.
C. 20.5%.
D. 25.9%.
Q 23:  Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
A. An inductor in series .
B. A resistor in series.
C. A capacitor in parallel.
D. A capacitor in series.
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
A. Tight tolerance.
B. High stability.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Comparatively low cost.
Q 25:  What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
A. Long life.
B. High discharge current.
C. High voltage.
D. Rapid recharge.
Q 26:  What is a microprocessor?
A. A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector.
B. A computer on a single integrated circuit.
C. A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit.
D. A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage.
Q 27:  Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 7.
C. Symbol 6.
D. Symbol 1 .
Figure G7-1
Q 28:  What is a shift register?
A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array.
B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations.
C. A digital mixer.
D. An analog mixer.
Q 29:  What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier.
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator.
C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector.
D. HF oscillator, pre-scaler, audio amplifier.
Q 30:  Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation?
A. Insufficient audio.
B. Insufficient bandwidth.
C. Frequency drift.
D. Excessive bandwidth.
Q 31:  If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
A. Quadrature noise.
B. Image response.
C. Mixer interference .
D. Intermediate interference.
Q 32:  What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?
A. 2:1.
B. 1:1.
C. 50:50.
D. 0:0.
Q 33:  How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered from 1/4 wave above ground?
A. It steadily increases.
B. It steadily decreases.
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground.
D. It is unaffected by the height above ground.
Q 34:  What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
A. The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer.
B. The driven element must be open-circuited on the side opposite the feed point.
C. The reflector element must be approximately 5% shorter than the driven element.
D. The reflector element must be approximately 5% longer than the driven element.
Q 35:  What is the advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
A. Allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization.
B. Allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization.
C. Narrows the main lobe in azimuth.
D. Narrows the main lobe in elevation.

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