Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
 (G0A01)
 
A. It heats body tissue.
B. It causes radiation poisoning.
C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level.
D. It cools body tissue.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
 (G0B14)
 
A. Acceptable bandwidth limits.
B. Acceptable modulation limits .
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack.
D. RF exposure limits of the human body.
 
 
Q 3:  Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?
 (G1A13)
 
A. 10 meters.
B. 12 meters.
C. 15 meters.
D. None.
 
 
Q 4:  What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
 (G1B01)
 
A. 50 feet.
B. 100 feet.
C. 200 feet.
D. 300 feet.
 
 
Q 5:  Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band?
 (G1C05)
 
A. 100 watts PEP output.
B. 1000 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. 2000 watts PEP output.
 
 
Q 6:  What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
 (G1D02)
 
A. General and Technician.
B. General only.
C. Technician only.
D. Extra, General and Technician.
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
 (G1E08)
 
A. Information must be exchanged in English.
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement.
C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?
 (G2A10)
 
A. The received signal is more natural sounding.
B. VOX allows "hands free" operation.
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved.
D. Provides more power output.
 
 
Q 9:  Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
 (G2B09)
 
A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license.
B. Only a RACES net control operator.
C. A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official.
D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational.
 
 
Q 10:  What does the term 'zero beat' mean in CW operation?
 (G2C06)
 
A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station.
B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency.
C. Sending without error.
D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal..
 
 
Q 11:  What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
 (G2D01)
 
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations .
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations .
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters .
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency .
 
 
Q 12:  How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
 (G2E12)
 
A. Terminates the contact.
B. Requests the packet be retransmitted.
C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station.
D. Requests a change in transmitting protocol.
 
 
Q 13:  What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle?
 (G3A10)
 
A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere.
B. Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts.
C. The Sun's rotation on its axis.
D. The position of the Moon in its orbit.
 
 
Q 14:  What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
 (G3B10)
 
A. 180 miles .
B. 1,200 miles .
C. 2,500 miles .
D. 12,000 miles .
 
 
Q 15:  Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
 (G3C11)
 
A. Vertical antennas.
B. Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground.
C. Left-hand circularly polarized antennas.
D. Right-hand circularly polarized antenna.
 
 
Q 16:  What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?
 (G4A13)
 
A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals.
B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier.
C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries.
D. To slow down received CW signals for better copy.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
 (G4B10)
 
A. Standing wave ratio.
B. Antenna front-to-back ratio.
C. RF interference.
D. Radio wave propagation.
 
 
Q 18:  What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
 (G4C05)
 
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire.
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire.
C. The ground rod is resonant.
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency.
 
 
Q 19:  How close to the upper edge of the 20 meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wideUSB?
 (G4D11)
 
A. 3 kHz above the edge of the band.
B. 3 kHz below the edge of the band.
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band.
D. Center your signal on the edge of the band.
 
 
Q 20:  What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
 (G4E06)
 
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals.
B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals.
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited.
D. Harmonic radiation may increase.
 
 
Q 21:  Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
 (G5A13)
 
A. A transformer.
B. A Pi-network.
C. A length of transmission line.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
 (G5B08)
 
A. 84.8 volts .
B. 169.7 volts .
C. 240.0 volts.
D. 339.4 volts .
 
 
Q 23:  Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?
 (G5C03)
 
A. A resistor in parallel.
B. A resistor in series.
C. A capacitor in series.
D. A capacitor in parallel.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
 (G6A03)
 
A. Tight tolerance.
B. High stability.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Comparatively low cost.
 
 
Q 25:  Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
 (G6B09)
 
A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction.
B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer.
C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer.
D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon.
 
 
Q 26:  What is meant by the term ROM?
 (G6C04)
 
A. Resistor Operated Memory.
B. Read Only Memory.
C. Random Operational Memory.
D. Resistant to Overload Memory.
 
 
Q 27:  Which of the following is an advantage of a switch-mode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
 (G7A08)
 
A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible.
B. Fewer circuit components are required.
C. High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 28:  For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
 (G7B11)
 
A. SSB.
B. CW.
C. AM.
D. All of these choices are correct .
 
 
Q 29:  Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
 (G7C05)
 
A. Wide tuning range and no need for band switching.
B. Relatively high power output.
C. Relatively low power consumption.
D. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator.
 
 
Q 30:  What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced modulator?
 (G8A12)
 
A. Both upper and lower sidebands.
B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both.
C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier.
D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier.
 
 
Q 31:  Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
 (G8B09)
 
A. It is required by FCC rules.
B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver.
C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna.
D. It results in the best signal to noise ratio.
 
 
Q 32:  What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 10-ohm impedance?
 (G9A10)
 
A. 2:1.
B. 50:1.
C. 1:5.
D. 5:1.
 
 
Q 33:  How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
 (G9B08)
 
A. It steadily increases.
B. It steadily decreases.
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end.
D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point.
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following is a reason why a Yagi antenna is often used for radio communications on the 20 meter band?
 (G9C06)
 
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane.
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna.
C. It helps reduce interference from other stations to the side or behind the antenna.
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands.
 
 
Q 35:  What does the term "NVIS" mean as related to antennas?
 (G9D01)
 
A. Nearly Vertical Inductance System.
B. Non-Visible Installation Specification.
C. Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing.
D. Near Vertical Incidence Sky wave.
 
 

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