Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?
 (G0A08)
 
A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station.
B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station.
C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 2:  What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?
 (G0B02)
 
A. AWG number 20.
B. AWG number 16.
C. AWG number 12.
D. AWG number 8.
 
 
Q 3:  On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
 (G1A01)
 
A. 60, 20, 17, and 12 meters.
B. 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters.
C. 160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters.
D. 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters.
 
 
Q 4:  When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1B05)
 
A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions.
B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter.
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz.
D. When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission.
 
 
Q 5:  Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band?
 (G1C05)
 
A. 100 watts PEP output.
B. 1000 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. 2000 watts PEP output.
 
 
Q 6:  What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
 (G1D10)
 
A. 12 years.
B. 18 years.
C. 21 years .
D. There is no age limit.
 
 
Q 7:  What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?
 (G1E09)
 
A. The language being used for the contact.
B. Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country.
C. English.
D. Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode?
 (G2A07)
 
A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed.
B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed .
C. SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode.
D. SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands .
 
 
Q 9:  When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
 (G2B10)
 
A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency.
B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications.
C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting.
D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked.
 
 
Q 10:  What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
 (G2C04)
 
A. Keep frequency clear .
B. Operating full break-in.
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations.
D. Closing station.
 
 
Q 11:  What is QRP operation?
 (G2D10)
 
A. Remote piloted model control.
B. Low power transmit operation.
C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol.
D. Traffic relay procedure net operation.
 
 
Q 12:  In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
 (G2E13)
 
A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted.
B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error.
C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet.
D. The entire file has been received correctly.
 
 
Q 13:  What effect do high sunspot numbers have on radio communications?
 (G3A09)
 
A. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted.
B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication.
C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced.
D. Microwave communications become unstable.
 
 
Q 14:  Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
 (G3B02)
 
A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band.
D. Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band.
 
 
Q 15:  Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
 (G3C11)
 
A. Vertical antennas.
B. Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground.
C. Left-hand circularly polarized antennas.
D. Right-hand circularly polarized antenna.
 
 
Q 16:  What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
 (G4A03)
 
A. The radio is operating at half power.
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source.
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies.
D. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation.
 
 
Q 17:  What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
 (G4B04)
 
A. The local oscillator of the transmitter.
B. An external RF oscillator.
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output.
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter.
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
 (G4C13)
 
A. Band-pass tuning.
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter.
C. Balanced mixing.
D. A noise limiter.
 
 
Q 19:  How close to the loweredge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wideLSB?
 (G4D10)
 
A. 3 kHz above the edge of the segment.
B. 3 kHz below the edge of the segment.
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment.
D. Center your signal on the edge of the segment.
 
 
Q 20:  What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
 (G4E10)
 
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge.
B. The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination.
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value.
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination.
 
 
Q 21:  What unit is used to measure impedance?
 (G5A10)
 
A. Volt.
B. Ohm.
C. Ampere.
D. Watt.
 
 
Q 22:  Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
 (G5B07)
 
A. The peak-to-peak value .
B. The peak value .
C. The RMS value .
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?
 (G5C07)
 
A. 12.2 to 1.
B. 24.4 to 1.
C. 150 to 1.
D. 300 to 1.
 
 
Q 24:  What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
 (G6A13)
 
A. The magnetic field may become inverted.
B. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies.
C. The permeability will increase.
D. The voltage rating may be exceeded.
 
 
Q 25:  What are two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon diode rectifiers?
 (G6B02)
 
A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current.
B. Average power; average voltage.
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage.
D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
 (G6C06)
 
A. Digital.
B. MMIC.
C. Programmable Logic.
D. Analog.
 
 
Q 27:  Which of the following components are used in a power-supply filter network?
 (G7A02)
 
A. Diodes.
B. Transformers and transducers.
C. Quartz crystals.
D. Capacitors and inductors.
 
 
Q 28:  Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?
 (G7B03)
 
A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low.
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high.
C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high.
D. Output is low only when both inputs are high.
 
 
Q 29:  Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?
 (G7C01)
 
A. Carrier oscillator .
B. Filter .
C. IF amplifier .
D. RF amplifier .
 
 
Q 30:  What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission?
 (G8A10)
 
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current.
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted.
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive.
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed.
 
 
Q 31:  What does the number 31 represent in PSK31?
 (G8B10)
 
A. The approximate transmitted symbol rate.
B. The version of the PSK protocol.
C. The year in which PSK31 was invented.
D. The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31.
 
 
Q 32:  What is the reason for the occurrence of reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
 (G9A04)
 
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency.
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle.
C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance.
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line.
 
 
Q 33:  What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
 (G9B12)
 
A. 8 feet.
B. 11 feet.
C. 16 feet.
D. 21 feet.
 
 
Q 34:  What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
 (G9C07)
 
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors.
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors.
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction.
D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
 (G9D09)
 
A. Directional transmitting for low HF bands.
B. Directional receiving for low HF bands.
C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies.
D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies.
 
 

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