Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

Click the buttons corresponding to your desired answers and to have your paper graded press the 'Submit Paper' button which is found at the end of the examination page.
As in the real examination, do not forget to check your paper before you submit it for marking, there is no time limit within which the paper has to be completed, so do not feel compeled to rush through. Any illustrations required for a particular question will be shown below that question. If you have a text based browser, you should consult a copy of these illustrations, which are available from the ARRL.
Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
Q 2:  Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire.
B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground.
C. Over-voltage on the hot wire.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 3:  Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
A. 11 meters.
B. 12 meters.
C. 30 meters.
D. 60 meters.
Q 4:  Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
A. Observation of propagation and reception.
B. Automatic identification of repeaters.
C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees.
D. Identifying net frequencies.
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?
A. 56 kilobaud.
B. 19.6 kilobaud.
C. 1200 baud.
D. 300 baud.
Q 6:  What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
A. General and Technician.
B. General only.
C. Technician only.
D. Extra, General and Technician.
Q 7:  When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
A. Under no circumstances.
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission.
C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency.
D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license.
Q 8:  Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband .
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
Q 9:  When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
A. Only when transmitting in RACES .
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net.
C. At any time during an actual emergency.
D. Only on authorized HF frequencies.
Q 10:  What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
A. Send slower.
B. We have already confirmed by card.
C. I acknowledge receipt.
D. We have worked before.
Q 11:  Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
A. A world map that shows accurate land masses.
B. A world map projection centered on a particular location .
C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator .
D. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit .
Q 12:  Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
C. CW.
Q 13:  What is the sunspot number?
A. A measure of solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups.
B. A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots .
C. A measure of the radio flux from the Sun measured at 10.7 cm .
D. A measure of the sunspot count based on radio flux measurements .
Q 14:  What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF)?
A. They are bent back to the Earth.
B. They pass through the ionosphere.
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere.
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth.
Q 15:  Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
A. The F2 layer.
B. The F1 layer.
C. The E layer.
D. The D layer.
Q 16:  What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier?
A. Exceeding the Maximum Usable Frequency.
B. Low input SWR.
C. Shorting the input signal to ground.
D. Excessive drive power.
Q 17:  What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a numerical digital readout?
A. When testing logic circuits.
B. When high precision is desired.
C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator.
D. When adjusting tuned circuits.
Q 18:  What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
A. Connect all equipment grounds together .
B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire.
C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity .
D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station.
Q 19:  How close to the upper edge of the 20 meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wideUSB?
A. 3 kHz above the edge of the band.
B. 3 kHz below the edge of the band.
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band.
D. Center your signal on the edge of the band.
Q 20:  What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?
A. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna.
B. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna.
C. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna.
D. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna.
Q 21:  How does an inductor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
Q 22:  How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts.
B. Approximately 61 watts.
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts.
D. Approximately 11 watts.
Q 23:  What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
A. .30 Henrys.
B. 3.3 Henrys.
C. 3.3 millihenrys.
D. 30 millihenrys.
Q 24:  Which of the following types of capacitors are often used in power supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?
A. Disc ceramic.
B. Vacuum variable.
C. Mica .
D. Electrolytic.
Q 25:  Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
A. Control grid.
B. Heater.
C. Screen Grid.
D. Trigger electrode.
Q 26:  Which of the following describes a type-N connector?
A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz.
B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits.
C. A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems .
D. An audio connector used in surround-sound installations.
Q 27:  What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
A. 90 degrees.
B. 180 degrees.
C. 270 degrees.
D. 360 degrees.
Q 28:  How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power.
B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power.
C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power.
D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power.
Q 29:  How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
A. By using direct signal phasing.
B. By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing.
C. By differential spurious phasing.
D. By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products.
Q 30:  What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission?
A. Audio fidelity is improved.
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion.
C. The available transmitter power can be used more effectively.
D. Simpler receiving equipment can be used.
Q 31:  Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
A. To aid in tuning your transmitter.
B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating..
C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 32:  What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
A. 50 ohms.
B. 75 ohms.
C. 100 ohms.
D. 300 ohms.
Q 33:  How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered from 1/4 wave above ground?
A. It steadily increases.
B. It steadily decreases.
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground.
D. It is unaffected by the height above ground.
Q 34:  What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
A. The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer.
B. The driven element must be open-circuited on the side opposite the feed point.
C. The reflector element must be approximately 5% shorter than the driven element.
D. The reflector element must be approximately 5% longer than the driven element.
Q 35:  Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
A. Its impedance is too low for effective matching.
B. It has high losses compared to other types of antennas.
C. It has poor directivity.
D. All of these choices are correct.

When you have completed your paper and checked your answers press the 'Submit Paper' button to have your paper graded.