Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
 (G0B05)
 
A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire.
B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground.
C. Over-voltage on the hot wire.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 3:  When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
 (G1A12)
 
A. The lower frequency end.
B. The upper frequency end.
C. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz.
D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz.
 
 
Q 4:  Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
 (G1B03)
 
A. Observation of propagation and reception.
B. Automatic identification of repeaters.
C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees.
D. Identifying net frequencies.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
 (G1C08)
 
A. 56 kilobaud .
B. 19.6 kilobaud .
C. 1200 baud .
D. 300 baud .
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
 (G1D04)
 
A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited .
D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present .
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
 (G1E08)
 
A. Information must be exchanged in English.
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement.
C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
 (G2A08)
 
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign.
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations.
C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response.
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station.
 
 
Q 9:  What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
 (G2B11)
 
A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message.
B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations.
C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges.
D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services.
 
 
Q 10:  What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
 (G2C03)
 
A. Listening for novice stations.
B. Operating full break-in.
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations.
D. Closing station now.
 
 
Q 11:  Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?
 (G2D08)
 
A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts.
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic.
C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest .
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information.
 
 
Q 12:  What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
 (G2E10)
 
A. It is much higher speed than RTTY.
B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes.
C. It has built-in error correction.
D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction.
 
 
Q 13:  Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio-wave propagation?
 (G3A08)
 
A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation.
B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation.
C. Improved ground-wave propagation.
D. Improved chances of UHF ducting.
 
 
Q 14:  What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
 (G3B05)
 
A. They are bent back to the Earth.
B. They pass through the ionosphere.
C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere.
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth.
 
 
Q 15:  Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
 (G3C08)
 
A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone.
B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector.
C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy.
D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy.
 
 
Q 16:  Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
 (G4A11)
 
A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency.
B. To change frequency rapidly.
C. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting.
D. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
 (G4B10)
 
A. Standing wave ratio.
B. Antenna front-to-back ratio.
C. RF interference.
D. Radio wave propagation.
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?
 (G4C01)
 
A. Bypass inductor.
B. Bypass capacitor.
C. Forward-biased diode.
D. Reverse-biased diode.
 
 
Q 19:  Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
 (G4D02)
 
A. It increases peak power.
B. It increases average power.
C. It reduces harmonic distortion.
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
 (G4E03)
 
A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire .
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire.
C. To the battery using resistor wire .
D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire.
 
 
Q 21:  What is reactance?
 (G5A02)
 
A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance.
B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance.
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits.
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized .
 
 
Q 22:  What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
 (G5B08)
 
A. 84.8 volts .
B. 169.7 volts .
C. 240.0 volts.
D. 339.4 volts .
 
 
Q 23:  What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
 (G5C06)
 
A. 2370 volts.
B. 540 volts.
C. 26.7 volts.
D. 5.9 volts.
 
 
Q 24:  What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
 (G6A13)
 
A. The magnetic field may become inverted.
B. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies.
C. The permeability will increase.
D. The voltage rating may be exceeded.
 
 
Q 25:  What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
 (G6B14)
 
A. 6 volts.
B. 8.5 volts.
C. 10.5 volts.
D. 12 volts.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
 (G6C06)
 
A. Digital.
B. MMIC.
C. Programmable Logic.
D. Analog.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
 (G7A09)
 
A. Symbol 2.
B. Symbol 5.
C. Symbol 1.
D. Symbol 4.
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
 (G7B14)
 
A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver.
B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform.
C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier.
D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier.
 
 
Q 29:  What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
 (G7C11)
 
A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software.
B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency.
C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software.
D. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process.
 
 
Q 30:  What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
 (G8A05)
 
A. Frequency shift keying.
B. Pulse position modulation.
C. Frequency modulation.
D. Amplitude modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
 (G8B08)
 
A. To aid in tuning your transmitter.
B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating..
C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 32:  What is the reason for the occurrence of reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
 (G9A04)
 
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency.
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle.
C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance.
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line.
 
 
Q 33:  How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
 (G9B08)
 
A. It steadily increases.
B. It steadily decreases.
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end.
D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point.
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
 (G9C01)
 
A. Larger diameter elements.
B. Closer element spacing.
C. Loading coils in series with the element.
D. Tapered-diameter elements.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
 (G9D02)
 
A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers.
B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers.
C. High forward gain.
D. All of these choices are correct .
 
 

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