Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?
 (G0A08)
 
A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station.
B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station.
C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 2:  Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
 (G0B03)
 
A. 100 amperes.
B. 60 amperes.
C. 30 amperes.
D. 15 amperes.
 
 
Q 3:  On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
 (G1A02)
 
A. 160 meters.
B. 30 meters.
C. 17 meters.
D. 12 meters.
 
 
Q 4:  Who or what determines 'good engineering and good amateur practice' as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
 (G1B12)
 
A. The FCC.
B. The Control Operator.
C. The IEEE.
D. The ITU.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter band?
 (G1C10)
 
A. 56 kilobaud.
B. 19.6 kilobaud.
C. 1200 baud.
D. 300 baud.
 
 
Q 6:  When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site?
 (G1D06)
 
A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges .
B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency.
C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges .
D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC.
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
 (G1E06)
 
A. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference.
D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
 (G2A08)
 
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign.
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations.
C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response.
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station.
 
 
Q 9:  What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
 (G2B11)
 
A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message.
B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations.
C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges.
D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services.
 
 
Q 10:  What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
 (G2C04)
 
A. Keep frequency clear .
B. Operating full break-in.
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations.
D. Closing station.
 
 
Q 11:  What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
 (G2D09)
 
A. Date and time of contact.
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact .
C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given .
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 12:  Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
 (G2E01)
 
A. USB.
B. DSB.
C. CW.
D. LSB.
 
 
Q 13:  Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
 (G3A03)
 
A. 28 days .
B. 1 to 2 hours.
C. 8 minutes.
D. 20 to 40 hours .
 
 
Q 14:  Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
 (G3B02)
 
A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band.
D. Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band.
 
 
Q 15:  Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
 (G3C11)
 
A. Vertical antennas.
B. Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground.
C. Left-hand circularly polarized antennas.
D. Right-hand circularly polarized antenna.
 
 
Q 16:  What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
 (G4A04)
 
A. A pronounced peak.
B. A pronounced dip.
C. No change will be observed.
D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
 (G4B08)
 
A. A field-strength meter.
B. An antenna noise bridge.
C. A multimeter.
D. A Q meter.
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
 (G4C08)
 
A. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable.
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors.
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors.
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable.
 
 
Q 19:  Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
 (G4D02)
 
A. It increases peak power.
B. It increases average power.
C. It reduces harmonic distortion.
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
 (G4E07)
 
A. The battery charging system.
B. The anti-lock braking system.
C. The anti-theft circuitry.
D. The vehicle control computer.
 
 
Q 21:  How does an inductor react to AC?
 (G5A05)
 
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
 
 
Q 22:  Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
 (G5B07)
 
A. The peak-to-peak value .
B. The peak value .
C. The RMS value .
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
 (G5C10)
 
A. .30 Henrys.
B. 3.3 Henrys.
C. 3.3 millihenrys.
D. 30 millihenrys.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following types of capacitors are often used in power supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?
 (G6A02)
 
A. Disc ceramic.
B. Vacuum variable.
C. Mica .
D. Electrolytic.
 
 
Q 25:  What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
 (G6B14)
 
A. 6 volts.
B. 8.5 volts.
C. 10.5 volts.
D. 12 volts.
 
 
Q 26:  What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
 (G6C15)
 
A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons.
B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating.
C. Higher current carrying capacity.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 27:  What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
 (G7A03)
 
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply.
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
D. Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
 
 
Q 28:  How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
 (G7B08)
 
A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power.
B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power.
C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power.
D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power.
 
 
Q 29:  What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in a single-sideband receiver?
 (G7C04)
 
A. RF oscillator.
B. IF filter.
C. Balanced modulator.
D. Product detector.
 
 
Q 30:  Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
 (G8A07)
 
A. Single sideband.
B. Double sideband.
C. Phase modulation.
D. Frequency modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
 (G8B12)
 
A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related.
B. Higher symbol rates require higher bandwidth.
C. Lower symbol rates require higher bandwidth.
D. Bandwidth is constant for data mode signals.
 
 
Q 32:  What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
 (G9A03)
 
A. 50 ohms.
B. 75 ohms.
C. 100 ohms.
D. 300 ohms.
 
 
Q 33:  Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to vertically polarized HF antenna?
 (G9B09)
 
A. Lower ground reflection losses .
B. Lower feed-point impedance.
C. Shorter Radials.
D. Lower radiation resistance .
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
 (G9C01)
 
A. Larger diameter elements.
B. Closer element spacing.
C. Loading coils in series with the element.
D. Tapered-diameter elements.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?
 (G9D10)
 
A. A vertical antenna constructed from beverage cans.
B. A broad-band mobile antenna .
C. A helical antenna for space reception.
D. A very long and low directional receiving antenna.
 
 

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