Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
 (G0A13)
 
A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach.
B. It should not be installed in a wet area.
C. It should limited to 10 feet in height.
D. It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess of maximum permissible limits.
 
 
Q 2:  Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
 (G0B09)
 
A. The resistance of solder is too high.
B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection.
C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection.
D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15 meter band?
 (G1A10)
 
A. 14250 kHz.
B. 18155 kHz.
C. 21300 kHz.
D. 24900 kHz.
 
 
Q 4:  Who or what determines 'good engineering and good amateur practice' as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
 (G1B12)
 
A. The FCC.
B. The Control Operator.
C. The IEEE.
D. The ITU.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands
 (G1C09)
 
A. 56 kilobaud .
B. 19.6 kilobaud .
C. 1200 baud .
D. 300 baud .
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?
 (G1D01)
 
A. Give your call sign followed by the words "General Class".
B. No special identification is needed.
C. Give your call sign followed by "slant AG".
D. Give your call sign followed the abbreviation 'CSCE'.
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
 (G1E08)
 
A. Information must be exchanged in English.
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement.
C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 8:  Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the high frequency amateur bands?
 (G2A05)
 
A. Frequency modulation .
B. Double sideband .
C. Single sideband .
D. Phase modulation .
 
 
Q 9:  What is the 'DX window' in a voluntary band plan?
 (G2B08)
 
A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States .
B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment .
C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band .
D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only .
 
 
Q 10:  What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
 (G2C08)
 
A. SK .
B. BK .
C. AR.
D. KN.
 
 
Q 11:  How is a directional antenna pointed when making a 'long-path' contact with another station?
 (G2D06)
 
A. Toward the rising Sun .
B. Along the gray line .
C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading.
D. Toward the north.
 
 
Q 12:  Which of the following describes Baudot code?
 (G2E05)
 
A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits.
B. A code using error detection and correction .
C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits.
D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN.
 
 
Q 13:  Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
 (G3A11)
 
A. 8 minutes.
B. 40 hours.
C. 28 days.
D. 11 years.
 
 
Q 14:  What factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
 (G3B12)
 
A. Path distance and location.
B. Time of day and season.
C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 15:  What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
 (G3C06)
 
A. They have high intelligibility.
B. They have a wavering sound.
C. They have very large swings in signal strength.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 16:  What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
 (G4A10)
 
A. Automatic transmit/receive switching.
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation .
C. VOX operation.
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation.
 
 
Q 17:  What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
 (G4B15)
 
A. Linearity .
B. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression.
C. Percentage of frequency modulation.
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift.
 
 
Q 18:  What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
 (G4C05)
 
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire.
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire.
C. The ground rod is resonant.
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency.
 
 
Q 19:  What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
 (G4D09)
 
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz.
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz.
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz.
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz.
 
 
Q 20:  What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
 (G4E06)
 
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals.
B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals.
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited.
D. Harmonic radiation may increase.
 
 
Q 21:  Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
 (G5A11)
 
A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits.
B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit.
C. Increase the power output of the first circuit.
D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits.
 
 
Q 22:  How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
 (G5B04)
 
A. 2.4 watts.
B. 24 watts.
C. 6 watts.
D. 60 watts.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
 (G5C09)
 
A. .30 microfarads.
B. .33 microfarads.
C. 33.3 microfarads.
D. 300 microfarads.
 
 
Q 24:  What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
 (G6A13)
 
A. The magnetic field may become inverted.
B. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies.
C. The permeability will increase.
D. The voltage rating may be exceeded.
 
 
Q 25:  Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
 (G6B08)
 
A. To increase the beta of the transistor.
B. To improve the power dissipation capability.
C. To reduce stray capacitance.
D. To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground.
 
 
Q 26:  What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
 (G6C15)
 
A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons.
B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating.
C. Higher current carrying capacity.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 27:  What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
 (G7A07)
 
A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input.
B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input.
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input.
D. A steady DC voltage.
 
 
Q 28:  What is a shift register?
 (G7B06)
 
A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array.
B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations.
C. A digital mixer.
D. An analog mixer.
 
 
Q 29:  Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier and send the result to the filter in a typical single-sideband phone transmitter?
 (G7C02)
 
A. Discriminator.
B. Detector.
C. IF amplifier.
D. Balanced modulator.
 
 
Q 30:  What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission?
 (G8A10)
 
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current.
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted.
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive.
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed.
 
 
Q 31:  If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
 (G8B02)
 
A. Quadrature noise.
B. Image response.
C. Mixer interference .
D. Intermediate interference.
 
 
Q 32:  Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
 (G9A01)
 
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors.
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line.
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal.
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line.
 
 
Q 33:  What is the low angle azimuthal radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole antenna installed 1/2 wavelength high and parallel to the Earth?
 (G9B04)
 
A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna.
B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna.
C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions).
D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side.
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50-ohm coax feed line?
 (G9C12)
 
A. It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom.
B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors.
C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 35:  At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
 (G9D03)
 
A. As close to one-half wave as possible.
B. As close to one wavelength as possible.
C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength.
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength.
 
 

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