Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
 (G0A01)
 
A. It heats body tissue.
B. It causes radiation poisoning.
C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level.
D. It cools body tissue.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
 (G0B10)
 
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling.
B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly.
C. Tin in the solder can 'cold flow' causing shorts in the circuit.
D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
 (G1A11)
 
A. 28.020 MHz.
B. 28.350 MHz.
C. 28.550 MHz.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 4:  Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
 (G1B04)
 
A. The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event.
B. The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies.
C. The FCC must have declared a state of emergency.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60 meter band?
 (G1C03)
 
A. 2.8 kHz.
B. 5.6 kHz.
C. 1.8 kHz.
D. 3 kHz .
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
 (G1D08)
 
A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years.
B. The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above.
C. The person's home citizenship must be in the ITU 2 region.
D. None of these choices is correct; non-U.S. citizens cannot be volunteer examiners.
 
 
Q 7:  What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1E05)
 
A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid.
B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs.
C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief.
D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
 (G2A03)
 
A. Upper sideband.
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
 
 
Q 9:  Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
 (G2B01)
 
A. Nets always have priority.
B. QSO's in process always have priority.
C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide.
D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies.
 
 
Q 10:  Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
 (G2C01)
 
A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK.
B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys.
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission.
D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements.
 
 
Q 11:  What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
 (G2D01)
 
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations .
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations .
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters .
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency .
 
 
Q 12:  What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
 (G2E06)
 
A. 85 Hz.
B. 170 Hz.
C. 425 Hz.
D. 850 Hz.
 
 
Q 13:  Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
 (G3A11)
 
A. 8 minutes.
B. 40 hours.
C. 28 days.
D. 11 years.
 
 
Q 14:  What does LUF stand for?
 (G3B07)
 
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points.
B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points.
C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period.
D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period.
 
 
Q 15:  What does the term 'critical angle' mean as used in radio wave propagation?
 (G3C04)
 
A. The long path azimuth of a distant station.
B. The short path azimuth of a distant station.
C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions.
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions .
 
 
Q 16:  What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
 (G4A02)
 
A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated.
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband.
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals.
D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented.
 
 
Q 17:  What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
 (G4B16)
 
A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90-degrees.
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals.
C. Two swept frequency tones.
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude.
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
 (G4C13)
 
A. Band-pass tuning.
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter.
C. Balanced mixing.
D. A noise limiter.
 
 
Q 19:  How close to the upper edge of the 20 meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wideUSB?
 (G4D11)
 
A. 3 kHz above the edge of the band.
B. 3 kHz below the edge of the band.
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band.
D. Center your signal on the edge of the band.
 
 
Q 20:  What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
 (G4E10)
 
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge.
B. The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination.
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value.
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination.
 
 
Q 21:  Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
 (G5A04)
 
A. Conductance.
B. Reluctance.
C. Reactance.
D. Admittance.
 
 
Q 22:  What would be the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
 (G5B12)
 
A. 173 volts.
B. 245 volts.
C. 346 volts.
D. 692 volts.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?
 (G5C04)
 
A. .30 ohms.
B. .33 ohms.
C. 33.3 ohms.
D. 300 ohms.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following describes a thermistor?
 (G6A08)
 
A. A resistor that is resistant to changes in value with temperature variations.
B. A device having a specific change in resistance with temperature variations.
C. A special type of transistor for use at very cold temperatures.
D. A capacitor that changes value with temperature.
 
 
Q 25:  Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
 (G6B09)
 
A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction.
B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer.
C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer.
D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon.
 
 
Q 26:  What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
 (G6C10)
 
A. Computer and transceiver.
B. Microphone and transceiver.
C. Amplifier and antenna .
D. Power supply and amplifier.
 
 
Q 27:  What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
 (G7A07)
 
A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input.
B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input.
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input.
D. A steady DC voltage.
 
 
Q 28:  Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
 (G7B02)
 
A. Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state.
B. The binary number system is most accurate.
C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 29:  Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?
 (G7C09)
 
A. An analog to digital converter.
B. A digital to analog converter.
C. A digital processor chip.
D. All of the these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 30:  What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission?
 (G8A06)
 
A. Audio fidelity is improved.
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion.
C. The available transmitter power can be used more effectively.
D. Simpler receiving equipment can be used.
 
 
Q 31:  What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
 (G8B04)
 
A. Mixer.
B. Reactance modulator.
C. Pre-emphasis network.
D. Multiplier.
 
 
Q 32:  What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
 (G9A07)
 
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential.
B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long.
C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths long.
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line.
 
 
Q 33:  How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered from 1/4 wave above ground?
 (G9B07)
 
A. It steadily increases.
B. It steadily decreases.
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground.
D. It is unaffected by the height above ground.
 
 
Q 34:  What is the approximate maximum theoretical forward gain of a three element, single-band Yagi antenna?
 (G9C09)
 
A. 9.7 dBi.
B. 9.7 dBd.
C. 5.4 times the gain of a dipole.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
 (G9D06)
 
A. Wide bandwidth.
B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna.
C. Harmonic suppression.
D. Polarization diversity.
 
 

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