Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
 (G0A04)
 
A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs.
B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body .
C. The total time of the exposure.
D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time.
 
 
Q 2:  Which wire or wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase source?
 (G0B01)
 
A. Only the hot wires .
B. Only the neutral wire.
C. Only the ground wire.
D. All wires.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band?
 (G1A07)
 
A. 1875 kHz.
B. 3750 kHz.
C. 3900 kHz.
D. 4005 kHz.
 
 
Q 4:  Who or what determines 'good engineering and good amateur practice' as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
 (G1B12)
 
A. The FCC.
B. The Control Operator.
C. The IEEE.
D. The ITU.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?
 (G1C02)
 
A. 1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion.
B. 200 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half-wave dipole.
 
 
Q 6:  What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
 (G1D02)
 
A. General and Technician.
B. General only.
C. Technician only.
D. Extra, General and Technician.
 
 
Q 7:  What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1E05)
 
A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid.
B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs.
C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief.
D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?
 (G2A10)
 
A. The received signal is more natural sounding.
B. VOX allows "hands free" operation.
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved.
D. Provides more power output.
 
 
Q 9:  Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
 (G2B09)
 
A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license.
B. Only a RACES net control operator.
C. A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official.
D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational.
 
 
Q 10:  When sending CW, what does a 'C' mean when added to the RST report?
 (G2C07)
 
A. Chirpy or unstable signal.
B. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated.
C. 100 percent copy.
D. Key clicks.
 
 
Q 11:  Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
 (G2D04)
 
A. A world map that shows accurate land masses.
B. A world map projection centered on a particular location .
C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator .
D. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit .
 
 
Q 12:  What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
 (G2E06)
 
A. 85 Hz.
B. 170 Hz.
C. 425 Hz.
D. 850 Hz.
 
 
Q 13:  What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle?
 (G3A10)
 
A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere.
B. Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts.
C. The Sun's rotation on its axis.
D. The position of the Moon in its orbit.
 
 
Q 14:  What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
 (G3B10)
 
A. 180 miles .
B. 1,200 miles .
C. 2,500 miles .
D. 12,000 miles .
 
 
Q 15:  What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
 (G3C06)
 
A. They have high intelligibility.
B. They have a wavering sound.
C. They have very large swings in signal strength.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 16:  What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
 (G4A06)
 
A. Balanced modulator.
B. SWR Bridge.
C. Antenna coupler.
D. Q Multiplier.
 
 
Q 17:  What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
 (G4B04)
 
A. The local oscillator of the transmitter.
B. An external RF oscillator.
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output.
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter.
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
 (G4C02)
 
A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas .
B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors .
C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection .
D. The use of horizontal rather than vertical antennas .
 
 
Q 19:  What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
 (G4D09)
 
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz.
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz.
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz.
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
 (G4E07)
 
A. The battery charging system.
B. The anti-lock braking system.
C. The anti-theft circuitry.
D. The vehicle control computer.
 
 
Q 21:  Why is impedance matching important?
 (G5A08)
 
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load.
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source.
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit.
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
 (G5B06)
 
A. 1.4 watts.
B. 100 watts.
C. 353.5 watts.
D. 400 watts.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 picofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
 (G5C08)
 
A. 576.9 picofarads.
B. 1733 picofarads.
C. 3583 picofarads.
D. 10750 picofarads.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
 (G6A04)
 
A. Tight tolerance.
B. Non-polarized.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Inexpensive RF capacitor.
 
 
Q 25:  What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
 (G6B03)
 
A. 0.1 volt.
B. 0.3 volts.
C. 0.7 volts.
D. 1.0 volts.
 
 
Q 26:  What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
 (G6C10)
 
A. Computer and transceiver.
B. Microphone and transceiver.
C. Amplifier and antenna .
D. Power supply and amplifier.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
 (G7A12)
 
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 7.
C. Symbol 6.
D. Symbol 1 .
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
 (G7B02)
 
A. Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state.
B. The binary number system is most accurate.
C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 29:  What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
 (G7C03)
 
A. Balanced modulator.
B. IF amplifier.
C. Mixer.
D. Detector.
 
 
Q 30:  What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating audio signal is applied to an FM transmitter?
 (G8A11)
 
A. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal.
B. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the amplitude and frequency of the modulating signal.
C. The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the instantaneous frequency of the modulating signal.
D. The carrier phase changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal.
 
 
Q 31:  What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
 (G8B04)
 
A. Mixer.
B. Reactance modulator.
C. Pre-emphasis network.
D. Multiplier.
 
 
Q 32:  What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
 (G9A12)
 
A. 2:1.
B. 2.5:1.
C. 1.25:1.
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values.
 
 
Q 33:  What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?
 (G9B01)
 
A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength .
B. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station .
C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation.
D. It is not effective on the higher HF bands.
 
 
Q 34:  Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
 (G9C17)
 
A. 1/4 wavelength.
B. 1/3 wavelength.
C. 1/2 wavelength.
D. 2/3 wavelength.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
 (G9D11)
 
A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies.
B. They must be used with an antenna tuner.
C. They must be fed with open wire line.
D. They have poor harmonic rejection.
 
 

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