Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
 (G0A02)
 
A. Its duty cycle.
B. Its frequency.
C. Its power density.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness?
 (G0B07)
 
A. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight.
B. Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the hook opening away from the tower.
C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring.
D. Make sure that your belt is grounded at all times.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band?
 (G1A07)
 
A. 1875 kHz.
B. 3750 kHz.
C. 3900 kHz.
D. 4005 kHz.
 
 
Q 4:  Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
 (G1B03)
 
A. Observation of propagation and reception.
B. Automatic identification of repeaters.
C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees.
D. Identifying net frequencies.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
 (G1C08)
 
A. 56 kilobaud .
B. 19.6 kilobaud .
C. 1200 baud .
D. 300 baud .
 
 
Q 6:  What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
 (G1D02)
 
A. General and Technician.
B. General only.
C. Technician only.
D. Extra, General and Technician.
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
 (G1E06)
 
A. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference.
D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?
 (G2A10)
 
A. The received signal is more natural sounding.
B. VOX allows "hands free" operation.
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved.
D. Provides more power output.
 
 
Q 9:  Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
 (G2B01)
 
A. Nets always have priority.
B. QSO's in process always have priority.
C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide.
D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies.
 
 
Q 10:  What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
 (G2C10)
 
A. Slow down.
B. Send faster.
C. Zero beat my signal.
D. Quitting operation.
 
 
Q 11:  What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
 (G2D01)
 
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations .
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations .
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters .
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency .
 
 
Q 12:  What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
 (G2E03)
 
A. Directory.
B. Preamble.
C. Header.
D. Footer.
 
 
Q 13:  How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
 (G3A15)
 
A. 28 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 4 to 8 minutes.
D. 20 to 40 hours.
 
 
Q 14:  What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
 (G3B04)
 
A. Listen for signals from an international beacon.
B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal.
C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe.
D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band.
 
 
Q 15:  Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
 (G3C11)
 
A. Vertical antennas.
B. Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground.
C. Left-hand circularly polarized antennas.
D. Right-hand circularly polarized antenna.
 
 
Q 16:  What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
 (G4A06)
 
A. Balanced modulator.
B. SWR Bridge.
C. Antenna coupler.
D. Q Multiplier.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
 (G4B08)
 
A. A field-strength meter.
B. An antenna noise bridge.
C. A multimeter.
D. A Q meter.
 
 
Q 18:  How can a ground loop be avoided?
 (G4C09)
 
A. Connect all ground conductors in series.
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire.
C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections.
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point.
 
 
Q 19:  How does an S meter reading of 20 dB over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
 (G4D05)
 
A. It is 10 times weaker.
B. It is 20 times weaker.
C. It is 20 times stronger.
D. It is 100 times stronger.
 
 
Q 20:  What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a HF mobile antenna?
 (G4E02)
 
A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna.
B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna.
C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object.
D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna.
 
 
Q 21:  What unit is used to measure reactance?
 (G5A09)
 
A. Farad.
B. Ohm.
C. Ampere.
D. Siemens.
 
 
Q 22:  How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
 (G5B05)
 
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts.
B. Approximately 61 watts.
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts.
D. Approximately 11 watts.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?
 (G5C12)
 
A. .07 microfarads.
B. 14.3 microfarads.
C. 70 microfarads.
D. 1000 microfarads.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
 (G6A04)
 
A. Tight tolerance.
B. Non-polarized.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Inexpensive RF capacitor.
 
 
Q 25:  What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
 (G6B01)
 
A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction.
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency.
C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction.
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency.
 
 
Q 26:  How is an LED biased when emitting light?
 (G6C08)
 
A. Beyond cutoff.
B. At the Zener voltage.
C. Reverse Biased.
D. Forward Biased.
 
 
Q 27:  What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
 (G7A04)
 
A. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply.
D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
 
 
Q 28:  What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
 (G7B09)
 
A. The number of stages in the counter.
B. The number of stages in the divider.
C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit.
D. The time delay of the lag circuit .
 
 
Q 29:  What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
 (G7C03)
 
A. Balanced modulator.
B. IF amplifier.
C. Mixer.
D. Detector.
 
 
Q 30:  What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating audio signal is applied to an FM transmitter?
 (G8A11)
 
A. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal.
B. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the amplitude and frequency of the modulating signal.
C. The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the instantaneous frequency of the modulating signal.
D. The carrier phase changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal.
 
 
Q 31:  What does the number 31 represent in PSK31?
 (G8B10)
 
A. The approximate transmitted symbol rate.
B. The version of the PSK protocol.
C. The year in which PSK31 was invented.
D. The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31.
 
 
Q 32:  In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
 (G9A06)
 
A. ohms per 1000 ft.
B. dB per 1000 ft.
C. ohms per 100 ft.
D. dB per 100 ft.
 
 
Q 33:  What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?
 (G9B01)
 
A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength .
B. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station .
C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation.
D. It is not effective on the higher HF bands.
 
 
Q 34:  What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
 (G9C08)
 
A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation.
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element.
C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element.
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna.
 
 
Q 35:  What is the advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
 (G9D05)
 
A. Allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization.
B. Allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization.
C. Narrows the main lobe in azimuth.
D. Narrows the main lobe in elevation.
 
 

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