Sample general2007 test paper

Practice FCC general2007 Practice Test

Click the buttons corresponding to your desired answers and to have your paper graded press the 'Submit Paper' button which is found at the end of the examination page.
As in the real examination, do not forget to check your paper before you submit it for marking, there is no time limit within which the paper has to be completed, so do not feel compeled to rush through. Any illustrations required for a particular question will be shown below that question. If you have a text based browser, you should consult a copy of these illustrations, which are available from the ARRL.
 
Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation .
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation .
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas .
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used .
 
 
Q 2:  Why is it not safe to use soldered joints with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
 (G0B09)
 
A. The resistance of solder is too high.
B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection.
C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection.
D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike.
 
 
Q 3:  What must you do if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
 (G1A15)
 
A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference .
B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference .
C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference .
D. Stop transmitting at once and/or move to a clear frequency.
 
 
Q 4:  What restrictions may the FCC place on an amateur station that is causing interference to a broadcast receiver of good engineering design?
 (G1B13)
 
A. Restrict the amateur station operation to times other than 8 pm to 10:30 pm local time every day, as well as on Sundays from 10:30 am to 1 pm local time.
B. Restrict the amateur station from operating at times requested by the owner of the receiver.
C. Restrict the amateur station to operation only during RACES drills .
D. Restrict the amateur station from operating at any time .
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2 meter bands?
 (G1C11)
 
A. 56 kilobaud .
B. 19.6 kilobaud .
C. 1200 baud .
D. 300 baud .
 
 
Q 6:  What document must be issued to a person that passes an exam element?
 (G1D08)
 
A. FCC form 605.
B. CSCE.
C. CCSA.
D. NCVEC form 605.
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
 (G1E04)
 
A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station.
B. When using a band where the amateur service is secondary.
C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions.
D. All of these answers are correct .
 
 
Q 8:  What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
 (G2A12)
 
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign.
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations.
C. Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response.
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station.
 
 
Q 9:  What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ using phone?
 (G2B12)
 
A. Ask if the frequency is in use, say your callsign, and listen for a response .
B. Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress.
C. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress .
D. Call CQ at low power first and if there is no indication of interference, increase power as necessary .
 
 
Q 10:  When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
 (G2C03)
 
A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency.
B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications.
C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting.
D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked.
 
 
Q 11:  How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?
 (G2D06)
 
A. Toward the rising sun .
B. Along the Gray Line .
C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading.
D. Toward the North.
 
 
Q 12:  What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for?
 (G2E11)
 
A. Manual Frequency Shift Keying.
B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying.
C. Manual Frequency Sideband Keying.
D. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying .
 
 
Q 13:  What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS" when using Morse code?
 (G2F02)
 
A. Send slower.
B. Change frequency.
C. Increase your power.
D. Repeat everything twice..
 
 
Q 14:  What is the A-index?
 (G3A13)
 
A. An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun .
B. The amount of polarization of the sun's electric field.
C. An indicator of the long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field.
D. An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado .
 
 
Q 15:  What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
 (G3B10)
 
A. 180 miles .
B. 1,200 miles .
C. 2,500 miles .
D. 12,000 miles .
 
 
Q 16:  Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
 (G3C08)
 
A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone .
B. Signals are scattered from the troposphere which is not a good reflector .
C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy .
D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy .
 
 
Q 17:  What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
 (G4A11)
 
A. Linearity .
B. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression .
C. Percentage of frequency modulation .
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift .
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?
 (G4B11)
 
A. Close-in radio direction-finding .
B. A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter .
C. An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter .
D. A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter .
 
 
Q 19:  Which of the following is covered in the National Electrical Code?
 (G4C10)
 
A. Acceptable bandwidth limits.
B. Acceptable modulation limits .
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack .
D. RF exposure limits of the human body .
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband signal?
 (G4D02)
 
A. It increases the peak power.
B. It increases the average power.
C. It reduces harmonic distortion.
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion.
 
 
Q 21:  Why would it be unwise to power your station by back feeding the output of a gasoline generator into your house wiring by connecting the generator through an AC wall outlet?
 (G4E13)
 
A. It might present a hazard for electric company workers .
B. It is prone to RF interference .
C. It may disconnect your RF ground .
D. None of the above; this is an excellent expedient.
 
 
Q 22:  Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
 (G5A14)
 
A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits.
B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit.
C. Increase the power output of the first circuit.
D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits.
 
 
Q 23:  How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
 (G5B03)
 
A. 0.5 watts .
B. 200 watts .
C. 400 watts .
D. 3200 watts.
 
 
Q 24:  What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
 (G5C01)
 
A. Capacitive coupling .
B. Displacement current coupling .
C. Mutual inductance .
D. Mutual capacitance.
 
 
Q 25:  What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a carbon resistor is increased?
 (G6A01)
 
A. It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade .
B. It will stay the same .
C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating .
D. It will become time dependent .
 
 
Q 26:  Which of the following is a rechargeable battery?
 (G6B16)
 
A. Carbon-zinc.
B. Silver oxide.
C. Nickel Metal Hydride.
D. Mercury.
 
 
Q 27:  Which type of integrated circuit is an operational amplifier?
 (G6C06)
 
A. Digital .
B. MMIC.
C. Programmable.
D. Analog.
 
 
Q 28:  What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
 (G7A18)
 
A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input .
B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input .
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input .
D. A steady DC voltage .
 
 
Q 29:  What are the basic components of virtually all oscillators?
 (G7B07)
 
A. An amplifier and a divider.
B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer.
C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop.
D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop .
 
 
Q 30:  Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
 (G8A07)
 
A. Single sideband .
B. Double sideband .
C. Phase modulation .
D. Frequency modulation .
 
 
Q 31:  What part of the 20 meter band is most commonly used for PSK31 operation?
 (G8B11)
 
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz.
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz.
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz.
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz.
 
 
Q 32:  What would be the SWR if you feed a folded dipole antenna that has a 300-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
 (G9A13)
 
A. 1.5:1 .
B. 3:1 .
C. 6:1 .
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values .
 
 
Q 33:  What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground-plane antenna?
 (G9B02)
 
A. They lower the radiation angle .
B. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms .
C. They increase the radiation angle .
D. They can be adjusted to bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms .
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following describes a common method for insulating the driven element of a Yagi antenna from the metal boom when using a gamma match?
 (G9C12)
 
A. Support the driven element with ceramic standoff insulators.
B. Insert a high impedance transformer at the driven element.
C. Insert a high voltage balun at the driven element.
D. None of these answers are correct. No insulation is needed.
 
 
Q 35:  At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
 (G9D03)
 
A. As close to one-half wave as possible.
B. As close to one wavelength as possible.
C. Height is not critical as long as significantly more than 1/2 wavelength.
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength.
 
 

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