Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following is good engineering practice for lightning protection grounds?
 (G0B11)
 
A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines.
B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle.
C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring.
D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds.
 
 
Q 3:  Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?
 (G1A13)
 
A. 10 meters.
B. 12 meters.
C. 15 meters.
D. None.
 
 
Q 4:  How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
 (G1B11)
 
A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU.
B. In conformance with Amateur Radio custom.
C. In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice.
D. All of these choices are correct .
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?
 (G1C02)
 
A. 1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion.
B. 200 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half-wave dipole.
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination?
 (G1D05)
 
A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination.
B. Receipt of a CSCE for General Class.
C. Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license.
D. An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation.
 
 
Q 7:  In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
 (G1E03)
 
A. Region 1.
B. Region 2.
C. Region 3.
D. All three regions.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
 (G2A03)
 
A. Upper sideband.
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
 
 
Q 9:  What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
 (G2B05)
 
A. Between 150 and 500 Hz .
B. Approximately 3 kHz .
C. Approximately 6 kHz .
D. Approximately 10 kHz .
 
 
Q 10:  When sending CW, what does a 'C' mean when added to the RST report?
 (G2C07)
 
A. Chirpy or unstable signal.
B. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated.
C. 100 percent copy.
D. Key clicks.
 
 
Q 11:  Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
 (G2D11)
 
A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna.
B. An isotropic antenna .
C. A unidirectional antenna.
D. An omnidirectional antenna.
 
 
Q 12:  What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
 (G2E10)
 
A. It is much higher speed than RTTY.
B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes.
C. It has built-in error correction.
D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction.
 
 
Q 13:  Which of the following amateur radio HF frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
 (G3A04)
 
A. 3.5 MHz and lower.
B. 7 MHz.
C. 10 MHz.
D. 21 MHz and higher.
 
 
Q 14:  What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
 (G3B05)
 
A. They are bent back to the Earth.
B. They pass through the ionosphere.
C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere.
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth.
 
 
Q 15:  Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
 (G3C10)
 
A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum.
B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance.
C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency.
D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency.
 
 
Q 16:  What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
 (G4A03)
 
A. The radio is operating at half power.
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source.
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies.
D. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
 (G4B09)
 
A. The radiation resistance of an antenna.
B. The radiation pattern of an antenna.
C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter.
D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter.
 
 
Q 18:  What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
 (G4C05)
 
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire.
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire.
C. The ground rod is resonant.
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency.
 
 
Q 19:  How does an S meter reading of 20 dB over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
 (G4D05)
 
A. It is 10 times weaker.
B. It is 20 times weaker.
C. It is 20 times stronger.
D. It is 100 times stronger.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
 (G4E07)
 
A. The battery charging system.
B. The anti-lock braking system.
C. The anti-theft circuitry.
D. The vehicle control computer.
 
 
Q 21:  What unit is used to measure reactance?
 (G5A09)
 
A. Farad.
B. Ohm.
C. Ampere.
D. Siemens.
 
 
Q 22:  How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
 (G5B04)
 
A. 2.4 watts.
B. 24 watts.
C. 6 watts.
D. 60 watts.
 
 
Q 23:  Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
 (G5C13)
 
A. An inductor in series .
B. A resistor in series.
C. A capacitor in parallel.
D. A capacitor in series.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
 (G6A03)
 
A. Tight tolerance.
B. High stability.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Comparatively low cost.
 
 
Q 25:  What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
 (G6B14)
 
A. 6 volts.
B. 8.5 volts.
C. 10.5 volts.
D. 12 volts.
 
 
Q 26:  What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
 (G6C17)
 
A. A special connector for microwave interfacing.
B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes.
C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals.
D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications.
 
 
Q 27:  What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
 (G7A01)
 
A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage.
B. It discharges the filter capacitors.
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils.
D. It eliminates ground-loop current.
 
 
Q 28:  Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
 (G7B12)
 
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class AB.
D. Class C.
 
 
Q 29:  Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
 (G7C05)
 
A. Wide tuning range and no need for band switching.
B. Relatively high power output.
C. Relatively low power consumption.
D. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator.
 
 
Q 30:  What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission?
 (G8A06)
 
A. Audio fidelity is improved.
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion.
C. The available transmitter power can be used more effectively.
D. Simpler receiving equipment can be used.
 
 
Q 31:  What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
 (G8B01)
 
A. Mixer.
B. BFO.
C. VFO.
D. Discriminator.
 
 
Q 32:  Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
 (G9A01)
 
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors.
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line.
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal.
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line.
 
 
Q 33:  Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to vertically polarized HF antenna?
 (G9B09)
 
A. Lower ground reflection losses .
B. Lower feed-point impedance.
C. Shorter Radials.
D. Lower radiation resistance .
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following is a reason why a Yagi antenna is often used for radio communications on the 20 meter band?
 (G9C06)
 
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane.
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna.
C. It helps reduce interference from other stations to the side or behind the antenna.
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?
 (G9D10)
 
A. A vertical antenna constructed from beverage cans.
B. A broad-band mobile antenna .
C. A helical antenna for space reception.
D. A very long and low directional receiving antenna.
 
 

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