Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
 (G0A12)
 
A. Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded.
B. Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line.
C. Wear a radiation badge.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 2:  Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
 (G0B06)
 
A. It prevents blowing of fuses in case of an internal short circuit.
B. It prevents signal overload.
C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded.
D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15 meter band?
 (G1A10)
 
A. 14250 kHz.
B. 18155 kHz.
C. 21300 kHz.
D. 24900 kHz.
 
 
Q 4:  When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1B05)
 
A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions.
B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter.
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz.
D. When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission.
 
 
Q 5:  Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band?
 (G1C05)
 
A. 100 watts PEP output.
B. 1000 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. 2000 watts PEP output.
 
 
Q 6:  How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
 (G1D09)
 
A. 30 days.
B. 180 days.
C. 365 days.
D. For as long as your current license is valid .
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
 (G1E08)
 
A. Information must be exchanged in English.
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement.
C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
 (G2A08)
 
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign.
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations.
C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response.
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station.
 
 
Q 9:  What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?
 (G2B06)
 
A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign.
B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ .
C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response.
D. Send 'QSY' on CW or if using phone, announce 'the frequency is in use', then send your call and listen for a response.
 
 
Q 10:  What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
 (G2C04)
 
A. Keep frequency clear .
B. Operating full break-in.
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations.
D. Closing station.
 
 
Q 11:  Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
 (G2D11)
 
A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna.
B. An isotropic antenna .
C. A unidirectional antenna.
D. An omnidirectional antenna.
 
 
Q 12:  What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
 (G2E06)
 
A. 85 Hz.
B. 170 Hz.
C. 425 Hz.
D. 850 Hz.
 
 
Q 13:  What effect do high sunspot numbers have on radio communications?
 (G3A09)
 
A. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted.
B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication.
C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced.
D. Microwave communications become unstable.
 
 
Q 14:  What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
 (G3B04)
 
A. Listen for signals from an international beacon.
B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal.
C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe.
D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band.
 
 
Q 15:  What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
 (G3C07)
 
A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable.
B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal.
C. The E-region is not present.
D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths.
 
 
Q 16:  Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
 (G4A12)
 
A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once.
B. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time.
C. To permit ease of monitoring the transmit and receive frequencies when they are not the same.
D. To facilitate computer interface.
 
 
Q 17:  What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
 (G4B06)
 
A. Better for measuring computer circuits.
B. Better for RF measurements.
C. Better precision for most uses.
D. Faster response.
 
 
Q 18:  How can a ground loop be avoided?
 (G4C09)
 
A. Connect all ground conductors in series.
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire.
C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections.
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point.
 
 
Q 19:  Where is an S meter found?
 (G4D06)
 
A. In a receiver.
B. In an SWR bridge.
C. In a transmitter.
D. In a conductance bridge.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75 meter band?
 (G4E05)
 
A. 'Picket Fencing' signal variation.
B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver.
C. The antenna system.
D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band.
 
 
Q 21:  What unit is used to measure impedance?
 (G5A10)
 
A. Volt.
B. Ohm.
C. Ampere.
D. Watt.
 
 
Q 22:  Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
 (G5B07)
 
A. The peak-to-peak value .
B. The peak value .
C. The RMS value .
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 picofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
 (G5C08)
 
A. 576.9 picofarads.
B. 1733 picofarads.
C. 3583 picofarads.
D. 10750 picofarads.
 
 
Q 24:  Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
 (G6A11)
 
A. To increase the energy transfer between circuits.
B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits.
C. To reduce conducted emissions.
D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors.
 
 
Q 25:  Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
 (G6B11)
 
A. A bipolar transistor.
B. A Field Effect Transistor.
C. A tunnel diode.
D. A varistor.
 
 
Q 26:  What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
 (G6C15)
 
A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons.
B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating.
C. Higher current carrying capacity.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
 (G7A12)
 
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 7.
C. Symbol 6.
D. Symbol 1 .
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
 (G7B08)
 
A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power.
B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power.
C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power.
D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power.
 
 
Q 29:  How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
 (G7C10)
 
A. By using direct signal phasing.
B. By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing.
C. By differential spurious phasing.
D. By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products.
 
 
Q 30:  Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
 (G8A07)
 
A. Single sideband.
B. Double sideband.
C. Phase modulation.
D. Frequency modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?
 (G8B05)
 
A. The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low.
B. Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels.
C. The wide bandwidth is prohibited by FCC rules.
D. The frequency stability would not be adequate.
 
 
Q 32:  What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
 (G9A02)
 
A. 25 and 30 ohms.
B. 50 and 75 ohms.
C. 80 and 100 ohms.
D. 500 and 750 ohms.
 
 
Q 33:  What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
 (G9B03)
 
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It stays the same.
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees.
 
 
Q 34:  What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna is changed from the center of either horizontal wire to the center of either vertical wire?
 (G9C18)
 
A. The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical.
B. The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal.
C. The direction of the main lobe is reversed.
D. The radiated signal changes to an omnidirectional pattern.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
 (G9D06)
 
A. Wide bandwidth.
B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna.
C. Harmonic suppression.
D. Polarization diversity.
 
 

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