Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
A. Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded.
B. Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line.
C. Wear a radiation badge.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 2:  Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
A. The resistance of solder is too high.
B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection.
C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection.
D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike.
Q 3:  What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference .
B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference .
C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference .
D. Move to a clear frequency.
Q 4:  With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
A. A beacon station may not use automatic control.
B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization.
C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical.
D. There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location.
Q 5:  Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 14 MHz band?
A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used.
B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz.
C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency.
D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts.
Q 6:  How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
A. 30 days.
B. 180 days.
C. 365 days.
D. For as long as your current license is valid .
Q 7:  When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
A. Under no circumstances.
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission.
C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency.
D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license.
Q 8:  Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband .
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
Q 9:  When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
A. Only when transmitting in RACES .
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net.
C. At any time during an actual emergency.
D. Only on authorized HF frequencies.
Q 10:  What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
A. Send slower.
B. We have already confirmed by card.
C. I acknowledge receipt.
D. We have worked before.
Q 11:  Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?
A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts.
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic.
C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest .
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information.
Q 12:  What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
A. It is much higher speed than RTTY.
B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes.
C. It has built-in error correction.
D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction.
Q 13:  How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
A. 28 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 4 to 8 minutes.
D. 20 to 40 hours.
Q 14:  Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band.
D. Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band.
Q 15:  Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum.
B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance.
C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency.
D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency.
Q 16:  What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
A. Minimum SWR on the antenna.
B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current.
C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current.
D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current.
Q 17:  Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
A. It improves the frequency response.
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter.
C. It improves the resolution of the readings.
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured.
Q 18:  Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
A. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable.
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors.
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors.
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable.
Q 19:  Where is an S meter found?
A. In a receiver.
B. In an SWR bridge.
C. In a transmitter.
D. In a conductance bridge.
Q 20:  What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals.
B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals.
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited.
D. Harmonic radiation may increase.
Q 21:  What is reactance?
A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance.
B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance.
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits.
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized .
Q 22:  Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
A. The peak-to-peak value .
B. The peak value .
C. The RMS value .
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value.
Q 23:  What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?
A. .07 microfarads.
B. 14.3 microfarads.
C. 70 microfarads.
D. 1000 microfarads.
Q 24:  Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit.
B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable.
C. The resistor could overheat.
D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit.
Q 25:  What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction.
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency.
C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction.
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency.
Q 26:  What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
A. A special connector for microwave interfacing.
B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes.
C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals.
D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications.
Q 27:  What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage.
B. It discharges the filter capacitors.
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils.
D. It eliminates ground-loop current.
Q 28:  How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
A. 3.
B. 6.
C. 8.
D. 16.
Q 29:  What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
A. Balanced modulator.
B. IF amplifier.
C. Mixer.
D. Detector.
Q 30:  What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
A. Frequency convolution.
B. Frequency transformation.
C. Frequency conversion.
D. Frequency modulation.
Q 31:  Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
A. It is required by FCC rules.
B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver.
C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna.
D. It results in the best signal to noise ratio.
Q 32:  How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
A. It is independent of frequency.
B. It increases.
C. It decreases.
D. It reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz.
Q 33:  What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
A. 8 feet.
B. 16 feet.
C. 24 feet.
D. 32 feet.
Q 34:  What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors.
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors.
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction.
D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain.
Q 35:  Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers.
B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers.
C. High forward gain.
D. All of these choices are correct .

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