Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
 (G0A02)
 
A. Its duty cycle.
B. Its frequency.
C. Its power density.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
 (G0B14)
 
A. Acceptable bandwidth limits.
B. Acceptable modulation limits .
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack.
D. RF exposure limits of the human body.
 
 
Q 3:  On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
 (G1A01)
 
A. 60, 20, 17, and 12 meters.
B. 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters.
C. 160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters.
D. 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters.
 
 
Q 4:  Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
 (G1B04)
 
A. The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event.
B. The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies.
C. The FCC must have declared a state of emergency.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
 (G1C08)
 
A. 56 kilobaud .
B. 19.6 kilobaud .
C. 1200 baud .
D. 300 baud .
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
 (G1D08)
 
A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years.
B. The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above.
C. The person's home citizenship must be in the ITU 2 region.
D. None of these choices is correct; non-U.S. citizens cannot be volunteer examiners.
 
 
Q 7:  What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1E05)
 
A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid.
B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs.
C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief.
D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
 (G2A08)
 
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign.
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations.
C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response.
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station.
 
 
Q 9:  When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
 (G2B12)
 
A. Only when transmitting in RACES .
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net.
C. At any time during an actual emergency.
D. Only on authorized HF frequencies.
 
 
Q 10:  What does the Q signal 'QRV' mean?
 (G2C11)
 
A. You are sending too fast.
B. There is interference on the frequency.
C. I am quitting for the day.
D. I am ready to receive messages.
 
 
Q 11:  When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
 (G2D05)
 
A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC.
B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications.
C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English.
D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union.
 
 
Q 12:  What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
 (G2E03)
 
A. Directory.
B. Preamble.
C. Header.
D. Footer.
 
 
Q 13:  How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
 (G3A15)
 
A. 28 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 4 to 8 minutes.
D. 20 to 40 hours.
 
 
Q 14:  What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
 (G3B10)
 
A. 180 miles .
B. 1,200 miles .
C. 2,500 miles .
D. 12,000 miles .
 
 
Q 15:  Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
 (G3C02)
 
A. Where the Sun is overhead.
B. Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth.
C. Where the Sun is rising .
D. Where the Sun has just set .
 
 
Q 16:  What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
 (G4A08)
 
A. Minimum SWR on the antenna.
B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current.
C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current.
D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current.
 
 
Q 17:  What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
 (G4B06)
 
A. Better for measuring computer circuits.
B. Better for RF measurements.
C. Better precision for most uses.
D. Faster response.
 
 
Q 18:  What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
 (G4C05)
 
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire.
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire.
C. The ground rod is resonant.
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency.
 
 
Q 19:  What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
 (G4D08)
 
A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz.
B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz.
C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz.
D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz.
 
 
Q 20:  What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
 (G4E06)
 
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals.
B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals.
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited.
D. Harmonic radiation may increase.
 
 
Q 21:  How does a capacitor react to AC?
 (G5A06)
 
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
 (G5B09)
 
A. 8.5 volts .
B. 12 volts .
C. 24 volts .
D. 34 volts .
 
 
Q 23:  What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
 (G5C06)
 
A. 2370 volts.
B. 540 volts.
C. 26.7 volts.
D. 5.9 volts.
 
 
Q 24:  Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
 (G6A11)
 
A. To increase the energy transfer between circuits.
B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits.
C. To reduce conducted emissions.
D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors.
 
 
Q 25:  Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
 (G6B10)
 
A. Control grid.
B. Heater.
C. Screen Grid.
D. Trigger electrode.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
 (G6C03)
 
A. Low power consumption.
B. High power handling capability.
C. Better suited for RF amplification.
D. Better suited for power supply regulation.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
 (G7A10)
 
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 1.
C. Symbol 11.
D. Symbol 5.
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
 (G7B05)
 
A. 3.
B. 6.
C. 8.
D. 16.
 
 
Q 29:  What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
 (G7C03)
 
A. Balanced modulator.
B. IF amplifier.
C. Mixer.
D. Detector.
 
 
Q 30:  What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information?
 (G8A01)
 
A. Phase modulation.
B. Frequency modulation.
C. Spread spectrum modulation.
D. Amplitude modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
 (G8B08)
 
A. To aid in tuning your transmitter.
B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating..
C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 32:  What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
 (G9A02)
 
A. 25 and 30 ohms.
B. 50 and 75 ohms.
C. 80 and 100 ohms.
D. 500 and 750 ohms.
 
 
Q 33:  What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
 (G9B03)
 
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It stays the same.
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees.
 
 
Q 34:  Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
 (G9C17)
 
A. 1/4 wavelength.
B. 1/3 wavelength.
C. 1/2 wavelength.
D. 2/3 wavelength.
 
 
Q 35:  At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
 (G9D03)
 
A. As close to one-half wave as possible.
B. As close to one wavelength as possible.
C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength.
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength.
 
 

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