Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?
 (G0A09)
 
A. A receiver with an S meter.
B. A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna.
C. A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms.
D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator.
 
 
Q 2:  What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
 (G0B13)
 
A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed.
B. Insure that the generator is not grounded.
C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20 meter phone band?
 (G1A08)
 
A. 14005 kHz.
B. 14105 kHz.
C. 14305 kHz.
D. 14405 kHz.
 
 
Q 4:  What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
 (G1B01)
 
A. 50 feet.
B. 100 feet.
C. 200 feet.
D. 300 feet.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?
 (G1C02)
 
A. 1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion.
B. 200 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half-wave dipole.
 
 
Q 6:  How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
 (G1D09)
 
A. 30 days.
B. 180 days.
C. 365 days.
D. For as long as your current license is valid .
 
 
Q 7:  In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
 (G1E03)
 
A. Region 1.
B. Region 2.
C. Region 3.
D. All three regions.
 
 
Q 8:  Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
 (G2A04)
 
A. Upper sideband .
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
 
 
Q 9:  If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
 (G2B03)
 
A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency .
B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator .
C. As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency .
D. Increase power to overcome interference.
 
 
Q 10:  What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
 (G2C09)
 
A. Send slower.
B. We have already confirmed by card.
C. I acknowledge receipt.
D. We have worked before.
 
 
Q 11:  Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
 (G2D04)
 
A. A world map that shows accurate land masses.
B. A world map projection centered on a particular location .
C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator .
D. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit .
 
 
Q 12:  In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
 (G2E09)
 
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz.
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz.
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz.
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz.
 
 
Q 13:  What is the solar-flux index?
 (G3A05)
 
A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth .
B. A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions.
C. Another name for the American sunspot number .
D. A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 cm.
 
 
Q 14:  What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
 (G3B11)
 
A. No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path.
B. HF communications over the path are enhanced.
C. Double hop propagation along the path is more common.
D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced.
 
 
Q 15:  Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
 (G3C03)
 
A. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer.
B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions.
C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 16:  What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
 (G4A02)
 
A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated.
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband.
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals.
D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
 (G4B02)
 
A. An oscilloscope uses less power.
B. Complex impedances can be easily measured.
C. Input impedance is much lower.
D. Complex waveforms can be measured.
 
 
Q 18:  What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
 (G4C06)
 
A. Overheating of ground straps.
B. Corrosion of the ground rod.
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment.
D. A ground loop.
 
 
Q 19:  What does an S meter measure?
 (G4D04)
 
A. Conductance.
B. Impedance.
C. Received signal strength.
D. Transmitter power output.
 
 
Q 20:  What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a HF mobile antenna?
 (G4E02)
 
A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna.
B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna.
C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object.
D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna.
 
 
Q 21:  How does a capacitor react to AC?
 (G5A06)
 
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
 (G5B09)
 
A. 8.5 volts .
B. 12 volts .
C. 24 volts .
D. 34 volts .
 
 
Q 23:  Which part of a transformer is normally connected to the incoming source of energy?
 (G5C02)
 
A. The secondary .
B. The primary .
C. The core .
D. The plates.
 
 
Q 24:  What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?
 (G6A06)
 
A. It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient.
B. It will stay the same.
C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient.
D. It will become time dependent.
 
 
Q 25:  What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
 (G6B12)
 
A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance.
B. To increase efficiency.
C. To increase the control grid resistance.
D. To decrease plate resistance.
 
 
Q 26:  What is meant by the term ROM?
 (G6C04)
 
A. Resistor Operated Memory.
B. Read Only Memory.
C. Random Operational Memory.
D. Resistant to Overload Memory.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
 (G7A09)
 
A. Symbol 2.
B. Symbol 5.
C. Symbol 1.
D. Symbol 4.
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
 (G7B09)
 
A. The number of stages in the counter.
B. The number of stages in the divider.
C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit.
D. The time delay of the lag circuit .
 
 
Q 29:  Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?
 (G7C09)
 
A. An analog to digital converter.
B. A digital to analog converter.
C. A digital processor chip.
D. All of the these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 30:  What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
 (G8A05)
 
A. Frequency shift keying.
B. Pulse position modulation.
C. Frequency modulation.
D. Amplitude modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
 (G8B12)
 
A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related.
B. Higher symbol rates require higher bandwidth.
C. Lower symbol rates require higher bandwidth.
D. Bandwidth is constant for data mode signals.
 
 
Q 32:  In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
 (G9A06)
 
A. ohms per 1000 ft.
B. dB per 1000 ft.
C. ohms per 100 ft.
D. dB per 100 ft.
 
 
Q 33:  What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
 (G9B03)
 
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It stays the same.
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees.
 
 
Q 34:  What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
 (G9C08)
 
A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation.
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element.
C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element.
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
 (G9D09)
 
A. Directional transmitting for low HF bands.
B. Directional receiving for low HF bands.
C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies.
D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies.
 
 

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