Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
 
 
Q 2:  Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
 (G0B09)
 
A. The resistance of solder is too high.
B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection.
C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection.
D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band?
 (G1A07)
 
A. 1875 kHz.
B. 3750 kHz.
C. 3900 kHz.
D. 4005 kHz.
 
 
Q 4:  When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?
 (G1B06)
 
A. During a declared communications emergency.
B. To control a space station.
C. Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature.
D. Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?
 (G1C11)
 
A. 56 kilobaud.
B. 19.6 kilobaud.
C. 1200 baud.
D. 300 baud.
 
 
Q 6:  How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
 (G1D09)
 
A. 30 days.
B. 180 days.
C. 365 days.
D. For as long as your current license is valid .
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
 (G1E08)
 
A. Information must be exchanged in English.
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement.
C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?
 (G2A10)
 
A. The received signal is more natural sounding.
B. VOX allows "hands free" operation.
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved.
D. Provides more power output.
 
 
Q 9:  What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
 (G2B02)
 
A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first.
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed.
C. Change to a different frequency.
D. Immediately cease all transmissions.
 
 
Q 10:  What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
 (G2C10)
 
A. Slow down.
B. Send faster.
C. Zero beat my signal.
D. Quitting operation.
 
 
Q 11:  Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?
 (G2D07)
 
A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna.
B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked .
C. You must keep a log of all third party traffic.
D. You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used.
 
 
Q 12:  In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
 (G2E13)
 
A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted.
B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error.
C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet.
D. The entire file has been received correctly.
 
 
Q 13:  What is a geomagnetic storm?
 (G3A06)
 
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index.
B. A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation.
C. Ripples in the ionosphere.
D. A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere.
 
 
Q 14:  What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
 (G3B10)
 
A. 180 miles .
B. 1,200 miles .
C. 2,500 miles .
D. 12,000 miles .
 
 
Q 15:  Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
 (G3C03)
 
A. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer.
B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions.
C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 16:  What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
 (G4A03)
 
A. The radio is operating at half power.
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source.
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies.
D. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation.
 
 
Q 17:  What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
 (G4B06)
 
A. Better for measuring computer circuits.
B. Better for RF measurements.
C. Better precision for most uses.
D. Faster response.
 
 
Q 18:  What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?
 (G4C03)
 
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air.
B. On-and-off humming or clicking.
C. Distorted speech.
D. Clearly audible speech.
 
 
Q 19:  What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
 (G4D09)
 
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz.
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz.
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz.
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz.
 
 
Q 20:  What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
 (G4E10)
 
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge.
B. The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination.
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value.
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination.
 
 
Q 21:  How does an inductor react to AC?
 (G5A05)
 
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
 
 
Q 22:  How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
 (G5B05)
 
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts.
B. Approximately 61 watts.
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts.
D. Approximately 11 watts.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?
 (G5C15)
 
A. 5.9 ohms.
B. 0.17 ohms.
C. 10000 ohms.
D. 80 ohms.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply?
 (G6A01)
 
A. Low equivalent series resistance.
B. High equivalent series resistance.
C. Low Temperature coefficient.
D. High Temperature coefficient.
 
 
Q 25:  Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
 (G6B09)
 
A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction.
B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer.
C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer.
D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
 (G6C13)
 
A. Octal.
B. RJ-11.
C. PL-259.
D. DB-25 .
 
 
Q 27:  What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
 (G7A03)
 
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply.
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
D. Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
 
 
Q 28:  What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
 (G7B09)
 
A. The number of stages in the counter.
B. The number of stages in the divider.
C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit.
D. The time delay of the lag circuit .
 
 
Q 29:  What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
 (G7C11)
 
A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software.
B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency.
C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software.
D. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process.
 
 
Q 30:  Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
 (G8A07)
 
A. Single sideband.
B. Double sideband.
C. Phase modulation.
D. Frequency modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
 (G8B08)
 
A. To aid in tuning your transmitter.
B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating..
C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 32:  In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
 (G9A06)
 
A. ohms per 1000 ft.
B. dB per 1000 ft.
C. ohms per 100 ft.
D. dB per 100 ft.
 
 
Q 33:  What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
 (G9B03)
 
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It stays the same.
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees.
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
 (G9C01)
 
A. Larger diameter elements.
B. Closer element spacing.
C. Loading coils in series with the element.
D. Tapered-diameter elements.
 
 
Q 35:  What is the advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
 (G9D05)
 
A. Allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization.
B. Allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization.
C. Narrows the main lobe in azimuth.
D. Narrows the main lobe in elevation.
 
 

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