Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?
A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station.
B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station.
C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 2:  Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling.
B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly.
C. Tin in the solder can 'cold flow' causing shorts in the circuit.
D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas.
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band?
A. 3.940 MHz.
B. 12.940 MHz.
C. 17.940 MHz.
D. 24.940 MHz.
Q 4:  When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?
A. During a declared communications emergency.
B. To control a space station.
C. Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature.
D. Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC.
Q 5:  Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band?
A. 100 watts PEP output.
B. 1000 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. 2000 watts PEP output.
Q 6:  Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
A. The Federal Communications Commission.
B. The Universal Licensing System.
C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator.
D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau.
Q 7:  Which of the following conditions require an Amateur Radio station licensee to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station.
B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary.
C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 8:  Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband .
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
Q 9:  Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
A. Nets always have priority.
B. QSO's in process always have priority.
C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide.
D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies.
Q 10:  Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK.
B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys.
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission.
D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements.
Q 11:  How is a directional antenna pointed when making a 'long-path' contact with another station?
A. Toward the rising Sun .
B. Along the gray line .
C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading.
D. Toward the north.
Q 12:  What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
A. Directory.
B. Preamble.
C. Header.
D. Footer.
Q 13:  What is the sunspot number?
A. A measure of solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups.
B. A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots .
C. A measure of the radio flux from the Sun measured at 10.7 cm .
D. A measure of the sunspot count based on radio flux measurements .
Q 14:  Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
A. Select a frequency just below the MUF.
B. Select a frequency just above the LUF.
C. Select a frequency just below the critical frequency.
D. Select a frequency just above the critical frequency.
Q 15:  What does the term 'critical angle' mean as used in radio wave propagation?
A. The long path azimuth of a distant station.
B. The short path azimuth of a distant station.
C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions.
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions .
Q 16:  What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
A. Balanced modulator.
B. SWR Bridge.
C. Antenna coupler.
D. Q Multiplier.
Q 17:  What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
A. The local oscillator of the transmitter.
B. An external RF oscillator.
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output.
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter.
Q 18:  Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
A. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable.
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors.
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors.
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable.
Q 19:  How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
A. Approximately 1.5 times.
B. Approximately 2 times.
C. Approximately 4 times.
D. Approximately 8 times.
Q 20:  What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge.
B. The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination.
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value.
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination.
Q 21:  Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
A. Conductance.
B. Reluctance.
C. Reactance.
D. Admittance.
Q 22:  How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
A. 0.5 watts.
B. 200 watts.
C. 400 watts.
D. 3200 watts.
Q 23:  What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
A. Capacitive coupling.
B. Displacement current coupling.
C. Mutual inductance.
D. Mutual capacitance.
Q 24:  Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply?
A. Low equivalent series resistance.
B. High equivalent series resistance.
C. Low Temperature coefficient.
D. High Temperature coefficient.
Q 25:  Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
A. To increase the beta of the transistor.
B. To improve the power dissipation capability.
C. To reduce stray capacitance.
D. To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground.
Q 26:  Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
A. PL-259 .
B. BNC .
C. RCA Phono.
D. Type N .
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
A. Symbol 1.
B. Symbol 2.
C. Symbol 7.
D. Symbol 11.
Figure G7-1
Q 28:  What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index.
B. To eliminate self-oscillations.
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods.
D. To keep the carrier on frequency.
Q 29:  Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. Carrier oscillator .
B. Filter .
C. IF amplifier .
D. RF amplifier .
Q 30:  What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission?
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current.
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted.
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive.
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed.
Q 31:  If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
A. Quadrature noise.
B. Image response.
C. Mixer interference .
D. Intermediate interference.
Q 32:  Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors.
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line.
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal.
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line.
Q 33:  What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
A. 8 feet.
B. 11 feet.
C. 16 feet.
D. 21 feet.
Q 34:  What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
A. 1/4 wavelength.
B. 1/2 wavelength.
C. 3/4 wavelength.
D. 1 wavelength.
Q 35:  Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
A. Length and spacing of the elements increases logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other.
B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency.
C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency.
D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length.

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