Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
 
 
Q 2:  When might a lead acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas?
 (G0B16)
 
A. When stored for long periods of time.
B. When being discharged.
C. When being charged.
D. When not placed on a level surface.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band?
 (G1A05)
 
A. 7.250 MHz.
B. 7.500 MHz.
C. 40.200 MHz.
D. 40.500 MHz.
 
 
Q 4:  With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
 (G1B02)
 
A. A beacon station may not use automatic control.
B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization.
C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical.
D. There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?
 (G1C11)
 
A. 56 kilobaud.
B. 19.6 kilobaud.
C. 1200 baud.
D. 300 baud.
 
 
Q 6:  What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
 (G1D02)
 
A. General and Technician.
B. General only.
C. Technician only.
D. Extra, General and Technician.
 
 
Q 7:  What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1E05)
 
A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid.
B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs.
C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief.
D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
 (G2A06)
 
A. Very high fidelity voice modulation .
B. Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency .
C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise.
D. Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics).
 
 
Q 9:  Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
 (G2B07)
 
A. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station.
B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times.
C. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 10:  Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
 (G2C01)
 
A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK.
B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys.
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission.
D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements.
 
 
Q 11:  When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
 (G2D05)
 
A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC.
B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications.
C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English.
D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union.
 
 
Q 12:  How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
 (G2E12)
 
A. Terminates the contact.
B. Requests the packet be retransmitted.
C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station.
D. Requests a change in transmitting protocol.
 
 
Q 13:  What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
 (G3A16)
 
A. Aurora that can reflect VHF signals.
B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions.
C. Improved HF long path propagation.
D. Reduced long delayed echoes .
 
 
Q 14:  What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
 (G3B09)
 
A. 180 miles.
B. 1,200 miles.
C. 2,500 miles.
D. 12,000 miles.
 
 
Q 15:  Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?
 (G3C01)
 
A. The D layer.
B. The E layer.
C. The F1 layer.
D. The F2 layer.
 
 
Q 16:  What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
 (G4A08)
 
A. Minimum SWR on the antenna.
B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current.
C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current.
D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?
 (G4B07)
 
A. Close-in radio direction-finding.
B. A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter.
C. An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter.
D. A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter.
 
 
Q 18:  What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
 (G4C04)
 
A. On-and-off humming or clicking.
B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency.
C. A chirpy CW signal.
D. Severely distorted audio.
 
 
Q 19:  Where is an S meter found?
 (G4D06)
 
A. In a receiver.
B. In an SWR bridge.
C. In a transmitter.
D. In a conductance bridge.
 
 
Q 20:  What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
 (G4E06)
 
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals.
B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals.
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited.
D. Harmonic radiation may increase.
 
 
Q 21:  Why is impedance matching important?
 (G5A08)
 
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load.
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source.
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit.
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
 (G5B11)
 
A. .707.
B. 1.00.
C. 1.414.
D. 2.00.
 
 
Q 23:  Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
 (G5C13)
 
A. An inductor in series .
B. A resistor in series.
C. A capacitor in parallel.
D. A capacitor in series.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?
 (G6A05)
 
A. Effective capacitance may be reduced.
B. Voltage rating may be reduced.
C. ESR may be reduced.
D. The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed.
 
 
Q 25:  Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
 (G6B09)
 
A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction.
B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer.
C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer.
D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon.
 
 
Q 26:  What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
 (G6C17)
 
A. A special connector for microwave interfacing.
B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes.
C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals.
D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
 (G7A10)
 
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 1.
C. Symbol 11.
D. Symbol 5.
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
 (G7B04)
 
A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low.
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high.
C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high.
D. Output is low only when both inputs are high.
 
 
Q 29:  Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier and send the result to the filter in a typical single-sideband phone transmitter?
 (G7C02)
 
A. Discriminator.
B. Detector.
C. IF amplifier.
D. Balanced modulator.
 
 
Q 30:  Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation?
 (G8A08)
 
A. Insufficient audio.
B. Insufficient bandwidth.
C. Frequency drift.
D. Excessive bandwidth.
 
 
Q 31:  If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
 (G8B02)
 
A. Quadrature noise.
B. Image response.
C. Mixer interference .
D. Intermediate interference.
 
 
Q 32:  How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
 (G9A05)
 
A. It is independent of frequency.
B. It increases.
C. It decreases.
D. It reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz.
 
 
Q 33:  What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna?
 (G9B02)
 
A. They lower the radiation angle.
B. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms.
C. They increase the radiation angle.
D. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms.
 
 
Q 34:  What is the approximate maximum theoretical forward gain of a three element, single-band Yagi antenna?
 (G9C09)
 
A. 9.7 dBi.
B. 9.7 dBd.
C. 5.4 times the gain of a dipole.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
 (G9D09)
 
A. Directional transmitting for low HF bands.
B. Directional receiving for low HF bands.
C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies.
D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies.
 
 

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