Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
 (G0A07)
 
A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels.
B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels.
C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements.
D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements .
 
 
Q 2:  What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
 (G0B13)
 
A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed.
B. Insure that the generator is not grounded.
C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?
 (G1A14)
 
A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station .
B. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies.
C. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users.
D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band.
 
 
Q 4:  With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
 (G1B02)
 
A. A beacon station may not use automatic control.
B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization.
C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical.
D. There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60 meter band?
 (G1C03)
 
A. 2.8 kHz.
B. 5.6 kHz.
C. 1.8 kHz.
D. 3 kHz .
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
 (G1D04)
 
A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited .
D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present .
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
 (G1E08)
 
A. Information must be exchanged in English.
B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement.
C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?
 (G2A02)
 
A. Upper sideband.
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
 
 
Q 9:  What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?
 (G2B06)
 
A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign.
B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ .
C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response.
D. Send 'QSY' on CW or if using phone, announce 'the frequency is in use', then send your call and listen for a response.
 
 
Q 10:  What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
 (G2C08)
 
A. SK .
B. BK .
C. AR.
D. KN.
 
 
Q 11:  What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
 (G2D09)
 
A. Date and time of contact.
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact .
C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given .
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 12:  What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
 (G2E07)
 
A. Returning to you.
B. Radioteletype.
C. A general call to all digital stations.
D. Repeater transmission type.
 
 
Q 13:  What is a geomagnetic storm?
 (G3A06)
 
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index.
B. A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation.
C. Ripples in the ionosphere.
D. A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere.
 
 
Q 14:  Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
 (G3B02)
 
A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band.
C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band.
D. Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band.
 
 
Q 15:  What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
 (G3C06)
 
A. They have high intelligibility.
B. They have a wavering sound.
C. They have very large swings in signal strength.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 16:  What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
 (G4A02)
 
A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated.
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband.
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals.
D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented.
 
 
Q 17:  Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
 (G4B05)
 
A. It improves the frequency response.
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter.
C. It improves the resolution of the readings.
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured.
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
 (G4C13)
 
A. Band-pass tuning.
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter.
C. Balanced mixing.
D. A noise limiter.
 
 
Q 19:  What does an S meter measure?
 (G4D04)
 
A. Conductance.
B. Impedance.
C. Received signal strength.
D. Transmitter power output.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
 (G4E03)
 
A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire .
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire.
C. To the battery using resistor wire .
D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire.
 
 
Q 21:  What is reactance?
 (G5A02)
 
A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance.
B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance.
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits.
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized .
 
 
Q 22:  Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
 (G5B07)
 
A. The peak-to-peak value .
B. The peak value .
C. The RMS value .
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value.
 
 
Q 23:  Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
 (G5C13)
 
A. An inductor in series .
B. A resistor in series.
C. A capacitor in parallel.
D. A capacitor in series.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
 (G6A04)
 
A. Tight tolerance.
B. Non-polarized.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Inexpensive RF capacitor.
 
 
Q 25:  Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
 (G6B10)
 
A. Control grid.
B. Heater.
C. Screen Grid.
D. Trigger electrode.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
 (G6C14)
 
A. PL-259 .
B. BNC .
C. RCA Phono.
D. Type N .
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
 (G7A10)
 
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 1.
C. Symbol 11.
D. Symbol 5.
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
 (G7B12)
 
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class AB.
D. Class C.
 
 
Q 29:  What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
 (G7C06)
 
A. Substantially higher.
B. About the same.
C. Substantially lower.
D. Twice the transmission line impedance.
 
 
Q 30:  Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
 (G8A07)
 
A. Single sideband.
B. Double sideband.
C. Phase modulation.
D. Frequency modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
 (G8B07)
 
A. 101.75 Hz.
B. 416.7 Hz.
C. 5 kHz.
D. 60 kHz.
 
 
Q 32:  What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
 (G9A07)
 
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential.
B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long.
C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths long.
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line.
 
 
Q 33:  What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna?
 (G9B02)
 
A. They lower the radiation angle.
B. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms.
C. They increase the radiation angle.
D. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms.
 
 
Q 34:  Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50-ohm coax feed line?
 (G9C12)
 
A. It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom.
B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors.
C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 35:  What does the term "NVIS" mean as related to antennas?
 (G9D01)
 
A. Nearly Vertical Inductance System.
B. Non-Visible Installation Specification.
C. Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing.
D. Near Vertical Incidence Sky wave.
 
 

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