Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
 (G0A04)
 
A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs.
B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body .
C. The total time of the exposure.
D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
 (G0B10)
 
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling.
B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly.
C. Tin in the solder can 'cold flow' causing shorts in the circuit.
D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas.
 
 
Q 3:  On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
 (G1A01)
 
A. 60, 20, 17, and 12 meters.
B. 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters.
C. 160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters.
D. 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters.
 
 
Q 4:  When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
 (G1B05)
 
A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions.
B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter.
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz.
D. When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands
 (G1C09)
 
A. 56 kilobaud .
B. 19.6 kilobaud .
C. 1200 baud .
D. 300 baud .
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
 (G1D04)
 
A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present .
C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited .
D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present .
 
 
Q 7:  Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
 (G1E06)
 
A. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference.
D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode?
 (G2A07)
 
A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed.
B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed .
C. SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode.
D. SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands .
 
 
Q 9:  If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
 (G2B03)
 
A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency .
B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator .
C. As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency .
D. Increase power to overcome interference.
 
 
Q 10:  What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
 (G2C10)
 
A. Slow down.
B. Send faster.
C. Zero beat my signal.
D. Quitting operation.
 
 
Q 11:  Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
 (G2D11)
 
A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna.
B. An isotropic antenna .
C. A unidirectional antenna.
D. An omnidirectional antenna.
 
 
Q 12:  In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
 (G2E09)
 
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz.
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz.
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz.
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz.
 
 
Q 13:  At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
 (G3A07)
 
A. At the summer solstice.
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle.
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle.
D. At any point in the solar cycle.
 
 
Q 14:  What does LUF stand for?
 (G3B07)
 
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points.
B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points.
C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period.
D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period.
 
 
Q 15:  What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?
 (G3C13)
 
A. Propagation near the MUF.
B. Short distance HF propagation using high elevation angles.
C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset.
D. Double hop propagation near the LUF .
 
 
Q 16:  What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
 (G4A02)
 
A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated.
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband.
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals.
D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
 (G4B10)
 
A. Standing wave ratio.
B. Antenna front-to-back ratio.
C. RF interference.
D. Radio wave propagation.
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
 (G4C13)
 
A. Band-pass tuning.
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter.
C. Balanced mixing.
D. A noise limiter.
 
 
Q 19:  What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
 (G4D01)
 
A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions .
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals.
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals.
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation.
 
 
Q 20:  What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a HF mobile antenna?
 (G4E02)
 
A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna.
B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna.
C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object.
D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna.
 
 
Q 21:  What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
 (G5A12)
 
A. To minimize transmitter power output.
B. To maximize the transfer of power.
C. To reduce power supply ripple.
D. To minimize radiation resistance.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
 (G5B14)
 
A. 8.75 watts.
B. 625 watts.
C. 2500 watts.
D. 5000 watts.
 
 
Q 23:  What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?
 (G5C12)
 
A. .07 microfarads.
B. 14.3 microfarads.
C. 70 microfarads.
D. 1000 microfarads.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
 (G6A03)
 
A. Tight tolerance.
B. High stability.
C. High capacitance for given volume.
D. Comparatively low cost.
 
 
Q 25:  Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode?
 (G6B06)
 
A. Lower capacitance.
B. Lower inductance.
C. Longer switching times.
D. Higher breakdown voltage.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
 (G6C09)
 
A. It requires ambient or back lighting.
B. It offers a wide dynamic range.
C. It has a wide viewing angle.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
 (G7A11)
 
A. Symbol 1.
B. Symbol 2.
C. Symbol 7.
D. Symbol 11.
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?
 (G7B01)
 
A. Microcontroller.
B. Charge-coupled device.
C. Phase detector.
D. Window comparator.
 
 
Q 29:  What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
 (G7C11)
 
A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software.
B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency.
C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software.
D. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process.
 
 
Q 30:  What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
 (G8A09)
 
A. The RF clipping level.
B. Transmit audio or microphone gain.
C. Antenna inductance or capacitance.
D. Attenuator level.
 
 
Q 31:  Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
 (G8B08)
 
A. To aid in tuning your transmitter.
B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating..
C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 32:  What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?
 (G9A11)
 
A. 2:1.
B. 1:1.
C. 50:50.
D. 0:0.
 
 
Q 33:  What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
 (G9B11)
 
A. 42 feet.
B. 84 feet.
C. 131 feet.
D. 263 feet.
 
 
Q 34:  How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
 (G9C14)
 
A. About 2/3 as much.
B. About the same.
C. About 1.5 times as much.
D. About twice as much .
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
 (G9D02)
 
A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers.
B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers.
C. High forward gain.
D. All of these choices are correct .
 
 

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