Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels.
B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels.
C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements.
D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements .
Q 2:  Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire.
B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground.
C. Over-voltage on the hot wire.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 3:  When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
A. The lower frequency end.
B. The upper frequency end.
C. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz.
D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz.
Q 4:  When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis.
B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available.
C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis.
D. Never.
Q 5:  Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band?
A. 100 watts PEP output.
B. 1000 watts PEP output.
C. 1500 watts PEP output.
D. 2000 watts PEP output.
Q 6:  Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
A. The Federal Communications Commission.
B. The Universal Licensing System.
C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator.
D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau.
Q 7:  In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
A. Region 1.
B. Region 2.
C. Region 3.
D. All three regions.
Q 8:  Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband.
B. Lower sideband.
C. Vestigial sideband.
D. Double sideband.
Q 9:  Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
A. Nets always have priority.
B. QSO's in process always have priority.
C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide.
D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies.
Q 10:  What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
A. SK .
B. BK .
C. AR.
D. KN.
Q 11:  How is a directional antenna pointed when making a 'long-path' contact with another station?
A. Toward the rising Sun .
B. Along the gray line .
C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading.
D. Toward the north.
Q 12:  Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
C. CW.
Q 13:  What does the A-index indicate?
A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun .
B. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field.
C. The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field.
D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado.
Q 14:  What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A. No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path.
B. HF communications over the path are enhanced.
C. Double hop propagation along the path is more common.
D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced.
Q 15:  Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during the day?
A. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours.
B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours.
C. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours.
D. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours.
Q 16:  Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency.
B. To change frequency rapidly.
C. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting.
D. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency.
Q 17:  What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
A. An ohmmeter.
B. A signal generator.
C. An ammeter.
D. An oscilloscope.
Q 18:  Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created.
B. Fewer digital components are required.
C. Mixing products are greatly reduced.
D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies.
Q 19:  What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions .
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals.
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals.
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation.
Q 20:  What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge.
B. The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination.
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value.
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination.
Q 21:  What unit is used to measure impedance?
A. Volt.
B. Ohm.
C. Ampere.
D. Watt.
Q 22:  Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
A. The peak-to-peak value .
B. The peak value .
C. The RMS value .
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value.
Q 23:  What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts.
B. 540 volts.
C. 26.7 volts.
D. 5.9 volts.
Q 24:  Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit.
B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable.
C. The resistor could overheat.
D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit.
Q 25:  What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance.
B. To increase efficiency.
C. To increase the control grid resistance.
D. To decrease plate resistance.
Q 26:  Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
A. PL-259.
B. Type N.
C. Type SMA.
D. DE-9.
Q 27:  What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
A. 90 degrees.
B. 180 degrees.
C. 270 degrees.
D. 360 degrees.
Q 28:  Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
A. Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state.
B. The binary number system is most accurate.
C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Q 29:  What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software.
B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency.
C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software.
D. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process.
Q 30:  Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation?
A. Insufficient audio.
B. Insufficient bandwidth.
C. Frequency drift.
D. Excessive bandwidth.
Q 31:  How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength.
B. By using the varicode character set.
C. By transmitting redundant information with the data.
D. By using a parity bit with each character.
Q 32:  What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
A. 50 ohms.
B. 75 ohms.
C. 100 ohms.
D. 300 ohms.
Q 33:  Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to vertically polarized HF antenna?
A. Lower ground reflection losses .
B. Lower feed-point impedance.
C. Shorter Radials.
D. Lower radiation resistance .
Q 34:  Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element.
B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element.
C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element.
D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth.
Q 35:  Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
A. Wide bandwidth.
B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna.
C. Harmonic suppression.
D. Polarization diversity.

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