Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
 (G0A11)
 
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation.
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation.
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
 (G0B15)
 
A. The generator should be located in a well ventilated area .
B. The generator should be insulated from ground.
C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band?
 (G1A05)
 
A. 7.250 MHz.
B. 7.500 MHz.
C. 40.200 MHz.
D. 40.500 MHz.
 
 
Q 4:  When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
 (G1B09)
 
A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis.
B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available.
C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis.
D. Never.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20 meter band?
 (G1C07)
 
A. 56 kilobaud.
B. 19.6 kilobaud.
C. 1200 baud.
D. 300 baud.
 
 
Q 6:  Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination?
 (G1D05)
 
A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination.
B. Receipt of a CSCE for General Class.
C. Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license.
D. An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation.
 
 
Q 7:  In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
 (G1E03)
 
A. Region 1.
B. Region 2.
C. Region 3.
D. All three regions.
 
 
Q 8:  Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the high frequency amateur bands?
 (G2A05)
 
A. Frequency modulation .
B. Double sideband .
C. Single sideband .
D. Phase modulation .
 
 
Q 9:  When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
 (G2B12)
 
A. Only when transmitting in RACES .
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net.
C. At any time during an actual emergency.
D. Only on authorized HF frequencies.
 
 
Q 10:  What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
 (G2C04)
 
A. Keep frequency clear .
B. Operating full break-in.
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations.
D. Closing station.
 
 
Q 11:  Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?
 (G2D08)
 
A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts.
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic.
C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest .
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information.
 
 
Q 12:  In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
 (G2E13)
 
A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted.
B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error.
C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet.
D. The entire file has been received correctly.
 
 
Q 13:  Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio-wave propagation?
 (G3A08)
 
A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation.
B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation.
C. Improved ground-wave propagation.
D. Improved chances of UHF ducting.
 
 
Q 14:  How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
 (G3B01)
 
A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds.
B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB .
C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation.
D. A well-defined echo might be heard.
 
 
Q 15:  What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
 (G3C09)
 
A. Faraday rotation.
B. Scatter.
C. Sporadic-E skip.
D. Short-path skip.
 
 
Q 16:  What is a purpose of using Automatic Level Control (ALC) with a RF power amplifier?
 (G4A05)
 
A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response.
B. To reduce harmonic radiation.
C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive.
D. To increase overall efficiency.
 
 
Q 17:  What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
 (G4B15)
 
A. Linearity .
B. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression.
C. Percentage of frequency modulation.
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift.
 
 
Q 18:  What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
 (G4C06)
 
A. Overheating of ground straps.
B. Corrosion of the ground rod.
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment.
D. A ground loop.
 
 
Q 19:  What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
 (G4D08)
 
A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz.
B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz.
C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz.
D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
 (G4E03)
 
A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire .
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire.
C. To the battery using resistor wire .
D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire.
 
 
Q 21:  How does a capacitor react to AC?
 (G5A06)
 
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases.
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases.
 
 
Q 22:  What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
 (G5B08)
 
A. 84.8 volts .
B. 169.7 volts .
C. 240.0 volts.
D. 339.4 volts .
 
 
Q 23:  Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
 (G5C13)
 
A. An inductor in series .
B. A resistor in series.
C. A capacitor in parallel.
D. A capacitor in series.
 
 
Q 24:  How should the winding axes of solenoid inductors be placed to minimize their mutual inductance?
 (G6A10)
 
A. In line.
B. Parallel to each other.
C. At right angles.
D. Interleaved.
 
 
Q 25:  What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
 (G6B14)
 
A. 6 volts.
B. 8.5 volts.
C. 10.5 volts.
D. 12 volts.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
 (G6C12)
 
A. PL-259.
B. Type N.
C. Type SMA.
D. DE-9.
 
 
Q 27:  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
 (G7A10)
 
A. Symbol 4.
B. Symbol 1.
C. Symbol 11.
D. Symbol 5.
Figure G7-1
 
 
Q 28:  How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
 (G7B05)
 
A. 3.
B. 6.
C. 8.
D. 16.
 
 
Q 29:  What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in a single-sideband receiver?
 (G7C04)
 
A. RF oscillator.
B. IF filter.
C. Balanced modulator.
D. Product detector.
 
 
Q 30:  What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information?
 (G8A01)
 
A. Phase modulation.
B. Frequency modulation.
C. Spread spectrum modulation.
D. Amplitude modulation.
 
 
Q 31:  What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency?
 (G8B06)
 
A. 3 kHz.
B. 5 kHz.
C. 8 kHz.
D. 16 kHz.
 
 
Q 32:  What is the reason for the occurrence of reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
 (G9A04)
 
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency.
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle.
C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance.
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line.
 
 
Q 33:  What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
 (G9B11)
 
A. 42 feet.
B. 84 feet.
C. 131 feet.
D. 263 feet.
 
 
Q 34:  Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
 (G9C03)
 
A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element.
B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element.
C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element.
D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
 (G9D09)
 
A. Directional transmitting for low HF bands.
B. Directional receiving for low HF bands.
C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies.
D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies.
 
 

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